AB 1170: Maintenance of the codes.

205.

(a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:

(1) Accountancy Fund.

(2) California Architects Board Fund.

(3) Athletic Commission Fund.

(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.

(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.

(6) Contractors License Fund.

(7) State Dentistry Fund.

(8) Home Furnishings and Thermal Insulation Fund.

(9) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.

(10) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.

(11) Optometry Fund.

(12) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.

(13) Physical Therapy Fund.

(14) Private Security Services Fund.

(15) Professional Engineer’s, Land Surveyor’s, and Geologist’s Fund.

(16) Consumer Affairs Fund.

(17) Behavioral Sciences Fund.

(18) Licensed Midwifery Fund.

(19) Court Reporters’ Fund.

(20) California Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.

(21) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.

(22) Electronic and Appliance Repair Fund.

(23) Acupuncture Fund.

(24) Physician Assistant Fund.

(25) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.

(26) Psychology Fund.

(27) Respiratory Care Fund.

(28) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.

(29) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.

(30) State Dental Hygiene Fund.

(31) Structural Pest Control Fund.

(32) Structural Pest Control Education and Enforcement Fund.

(33) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.

(34) Household Movers Fund.

(35) Household Goods and Services Fund.

(36) Naturopathic Doctor’s Fund.

(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.

(c) This section shall remain in effect only until July 1, 2026, and as of that date is repealed.

205.

(a) There is in the State Treasury the Professions and Vocations Fund. The fund shall consist of the following special funds:

(1) Accountancy Fund.

(2) California Architects Board Fund.

(3) Athletic Commission Fund.

(4) Barbering and Cosmetology Contingent Fund.

(5) Cemetery and Funeral Fund.

(6) Contractors License Fund.

(7) State Dentistry Fund.

(8) California Architects Board-Landscape Architects Fund.

(9) Contingent Fund of the Medical Board of California.

(10) Optometry Fund.

(11) Pharmacy Board Contingent Fund.

(12) Physical Therapy Fund.

(13) Private Security Services Fund.

(14) Professional Engineer’s, Land Surveyor’s, and Geologist’s Fund.

(15) Consumer Affairs Fund.

(16) Behavioral Sciences Fund.

(17) Licensed Midwifery Fund.

(18) Court Reporters’ Fund.

(19) California Veterinary Medical Board Contingent Fund.

(20) Vocational Nursing and Psychiatric Technicians Fund.

(21) Acupuncture Fund.

(22) Physician Assistant Fund.

(23) Board of Podiatric Medicine Fund.

(24) Psychology Fund.

(25) Respiratory Care Fund.

(26) Speech-Language Pathology and Audiology and Hearing Aid Dispensers Fund.

(27) Board of Registered Nursing Fund.

(28) State Dental Hygiene Fund.

(29) Structural Pest Control Fund.

(30) Structural Pest Control Education and Enforcement Fund.

(31) Structural Pest Control Research Fund.

(32) Household Goods and Services Fund.

(33) Naturopathic Doctor’s Fund.

(b) For accounting and recordkeeping purposes, the Professions and Vocations Fund shall be deemed to be a single special fund, and each of the several special funds therein shall constitute and be deemed to be a separate account in the Professions and Vocations Fund. Each account or fund shall be available for expenditure only for the purposes as are now or may hereafter be provided by law.

(c) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2026.

208.

(a) Beginning April 1, 2023, a Controlled Substance Utilization Review and Evaluation System (CURES) fee of nine dollars ($9) shall be assessed annually on each of the licensees specified in subdivision (b) to pay the reasonable costs associated with operating and maintaining CURES for the purpose of regulating those licensees. The fee assessed pursuant to this subdivision shall be billed and collected by the regulating agency of each licensee at the time of the licensee’s license renewal. If the reasonable regulatory cost of operating and maintaining CURES is less than nine dollars ($9) per licensee, the Department of Consumer Affairs, by regulation, may reduce the fee established by this section to the reasonable regulatory cost.

(b) (1) Licensees authorized pursuant to Section 11150 of the Health and Safety Code to prescribe, order, administer, furnish, or dispense Schedule II, Schedule III, or Schedule IV controlled substances or pharmacists licensed pursuant to Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 4000) of Division 2.

(2) Licensees issued a license that has been placed in a retired or inactive status pursuant to a statute or regulation are exempt from the CURES fee requirement in subdivision (a). This exemption shall not apply to licensees whose license has been placed in a retired or inactive status if the licensee is at any time authorized to prescribe, order, administer, furnish, or dispense Schedule II, Schedule III, or Schedule IV controlled substances.

(3) Wholesalers, third-party logistics providers, nonresident wholesalers, and nonresident third-party logistics providers of dangerous drugs licensed pursuant to Article 11 (commencing with Section 4160) of Chapter 9 of Division 2.

(4) Nongovernmental clinics licensed pursuant to Article 13 (commencing with Section 4180) and Article 14 (commencing with Section 4190) of Chapter 9 of Division 2.

(5) Nongovernmental pharmacies licensed pursuant to Article 7 (commencing with Section 4110) of Chapter 9 of Division 2.

(c) The funds collected pursuant to subdivision (a) shall be deposited in the CURES Fund, which is hereby created within the State Treasury. Moneys in the CURES Fund, upon appropriation by the Legislature, shall be available to the Department of Consumer Affairs to reimburse the Department of Justice for costs to operate and maintain CURES for the purposes of regulating the licensees specified in subdivision (b).

(d) The Department of Consumer Affairs shall contract with the Department of Justice on behalf of the Medical Board of California, the Dental Board of California, the California State Board of Pharmacy, the California Veterinary Medical Board, the Board of Registered Nursing, the Physician Assistant Board, the Osteopathic Medical Board of California, the California Board of Naturopathic Medicine, the State Board of Optometry, and the Podiatric Medical Board of California to operate and maintain CURES for the purposes of regulating the licensees specified in subdivision (b).

(e) This section shall become operative on April 1, 2023.

(f) This section shall become inoperative on April 1, 2025, and, as of January 1, 2026, is repealed.

208.

(a) Beginning April 1, 2025, a Controlled Substance Utilization Review and Evaluation System (CURES) fee of fifteen dollars ($15) shall be assessed annually on each of the licensees specified in subdivision (b) to pay the reasonable costs associated with operating and maintaining CURES for the purpose of regulating those licensees. The fee assessed pursuant to this subdivision shall be billed and collected by the regulating agency of each licensee at the time of the licensee’s license renewal. If the reasonable regulatory cost of operating and maintaining CURES is less than fifteen dollars ($15) per licensee, the Department of Consumer Affairs, by regulation, may reduce the fee established by this section to the reasonable regulatory cost.

(b) (1) Licensees authorized pursuant to Section 11150 of the Health and Safety Code to prescribe, order, administer, furnish, or dispense Schedule II, Schedule III, or Schedule IV controlled substances or pharmacists licensed pursuant to Chapter 9 (commencing with Section 4000) of Division 2.

(2) Licensees issued a license that has been placed in a retired or inactive status pursuant to a statute or regulation are exempt from the CURES fee requirement in subdivision (a). This exemption shall not apply to licensees whose license has been placed in a retired or inactive status if the licensee is at any time authorized to prescribe, order, administer, furnish, or dispense Schedule II, Schedule III, or Schedule IV controlled substances.

(3) Wholesalers, third-party logistics providers, nonresident wholesalers, and nonresident third-party logistics providers of dangerous drugs licensed pursuant to Article 11 (commencing with Section 4160) of Chapter 9 of Division 2.

(4) Nongovernmental clinics licensed pursuant to Article 13 (commencing with Section 4180) and Article 14 (commencing with Section 4190) of Chapter 9 of Division 2.

(5) Nongovernmental pharmacies licensed pursuant to Article 7 (commencing with Section 4110) of Chapter 9 of Division 2.

(c) The funds collected pursuant to subdivision (a) shall be deposited in the CURES Fund, which is hereby created within the State Treasury. Moneys in the CURES Fund, upon appropriation by the Legislature, shall be available to the Department of Consumer Affairs to reimburse the Department of Justice for costs to operate and maintain CURES for the purposes of regulating the licensees specified in subdivision (b).

(d) The Department of Consumer Affairs shall contract with the Department of Justice on behalf of the Medical Board of California, the Dental Board of California, the California State Board of Pharmacy, the California Veterinary Medical Board, the Board of Registered Nursing, the Physician Assistant Board, the Osteopathic Medical Board of California, the California Board of Naturopathic Medicine, the State Board of Optometry, and the Podiatric Medical Board of California to operate and maintain CURES for the purposes of regulating the licensees specified in subdivision (b).

(e) This section shall become operative on April 1, 2025.

1944.

(a) The dental hygiene board shall establish by resolution the amount of the fees that relate to the licensing of a registered dental hygienist, a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice, and a registered dental hygienist in extended functions. The fees established by dental hygiene board resolution in effect on June 30, 2009, as they relate to the licensure of registered dental hygienists, registered dental hygienists in alternative practice, and registered dental hygienists in extended functions, shall remain in effect until modified by the dental hygiene board. The fees are subject to the following limitations:

(1) The application fee for an original license and the fee for issuance of an original license shall not exceed two hundred fifty dollars ($250).

(2) The fee for examination for licensure as a registered dental hygienist shall not exceed the actual cost of the examination.

(3) The fee for examination for licensure as a registered dental hygienist in extended functions shall not exceed the actual cost of the examination.

(4) The fee for examination for licensure as a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice shall not exceed the actual cost of administering the examination.

(5) The biennial renewal fee shall not exceed five hundred dollars ($500).

(6) The delinquency fee shall not exceed one-half of the renewal fee. Any delinquent license may be restored only upon payment of all fees, including the delinquency fee, and compliance with all other applicable requirements of this article.

(7) The fee for issuance of a duplicate license to replace one that is lost or destroyed, or in the event of a name change, shall not exceed twenty-five dollars ($25) or one-half of the renewal fee, whichever is greater.

(8) The fee for certification of licensure shall not exceed one-half of the renewal fee.

(9) The fee for each curriculum review and feasibility study review for educational programs for dental hygienists who are not accredited by a dental hygiene board-approved agency shall not exceed two thousand one hundred dollars ($2,100).

(10) The fee for each review or approval of course requirements for licensure or procedures that require additional training shall not exceed seven hundred fifty dollars ($750).

(11) The initial application and biennial fee for a provider of continuing education shall not exceed five hundred dollars ($500).

(12) The amount of fees payable in connection with permits issued under Section 1962 is as follows:

(A) The initial permit fee is an amount equal to the renewal fee for the applicant’s license to practice dental hygiene in effect on the last regular renewal date before the date on which the permit is issued.

(B) If the permit will expire less than one year after its issuance, then the initial permit fee is an amount equal to 50 percent of the renewal fee in effect on the last regular renewal date before the date on which the permit is issued.

(13) The fee for the dental hygiene board to conduct a site visit to educational programs for a registered dental hygienist, a registered dental hygienist in alternative practice, or a registered dental hygienist in extended functions to ensure compliance of educational program requirements shall not exceed the actual cost incurred by the dental hygiene board for cost recovery of site visit expenditures.

(14) The fee for a retired license shall not exceed one-half of the current license renewal fee.

(b) The renewal and delinquency fees shall be fixed by the dental hygiene board by resolution at not more than the current amount of the renewal fee for a license to practice under this article nor less than five dollars ($5).

(c) Fees fixed by the dental hygiene board by resolution pursuant to this section shall not be subject to the approval of the Office of Administrative Law.

(d) Fees collected pursuant to this section shall be collected by the dental hygiene board and deposited into the State Dental Hygiene Fund, which is hereby created. All money in this fund, upon appropriation by the Legislature in the annual Budget Act, shall be used to implement this article.

(e) No fees or charges other than those listed in this section shall be levied by the dental hygiene board in connection with the licensure of registered dental hygienists, registered dental hygienists in alternative practice, or registered dental hygienists in extended functions.

(f) The fee for registration of an extramural dental facility shall not exceed two hundred fifty dollars ($250).

(g) The fee for registration of a mobile dental hygiene unit shall not exceed one hundred fifty dollars ($150).

(h) The biennial renewal fee for a mobile dental hygiene unit shall not exceed two hundred fifty dollars ($250).

(i) The fee for an additional office permit shall not exceed two hundred fifty dollars ($250).

(j) The biennial renewal fee for an additional office as described in Section 1926.4 shall not exceed two hundred fifty dollars ($250).

(k) The initial application and biennial special permit fee is an amount equal to the biennial renewal fee specified in paragraph (5) of subdivision (a).

(l) The fees in this section shall not exceed an amount sufficient to cover the reasonable regulatory cost of carrying out this article.

2529.8.1.

(a) A person shall not hold themselves out to be an athletic trainer, use the title “athletic trainer,” “certified athletic trainer,” “licensed athletic trainer,” “registered athletic trainer,” or any other term such as “AT,” “ATC,” “LAT,” or “CAT” to imply or suggest that the person is an athletic trainer, unless they meet the following requirements:

(1) Have done either of the following:

(A) Graduated from a college or university after completing an athletic training education program accredited by the Commission on Accreditation of Athletic Training Education, or its predecessors or successors.

(B) Completed eligibility requirements for certification by the Board of Certification for the Athletic Trainer, or its predecessors or successors.

(2) Is certified by the Board of Certification for the Athletic Trainer, or its predecessors or successors.

(b) It is an unfair business practice within the meaning of Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 17200) of Part 2 of Division 7 for a person to use the title “athletic trainer,” “certified athletic trainer,” “licensed athletic trainer,” “registered athletic trainer,” or any other term such as “AT,” “ATC,” “LAT,” or “CAT,” that implies or suggests that the person is an athletic trainer, if they do not meet the requirements of subdivision (a).

(c) A person shall not hold themselves out to be an athletic trainer or use any of the titles listed under subdivisions (a) and (b) if either of the following is true:

(1) The person has been convicted in a court in or outside of this state of any offense that, if committed or attempted in this state, based on the elements of the convicted offense, would have been punishable as one or more of the offenses described in subdivision (c) of Section 290 of the Penal Code.

(2) The person has an athletic trainer license or registration in another state that was disciplined or is otherwise restricted, or if an accusation or similar document initiating disciplinary action is pending against the license or registration.

(d) A person who is currently using one of the titles listed under subdivisions (a) and (b) and is covered under a collective bargaining agreement is not subject to the requirements of this section until the parties to that bargaining agreement renew that agreement. At that time, a person shall not use the titles listed in subdivisions (a) and (b) if the individual does not meet the requirements of this section. Those individuals may choose a different title to describe their positions under the new collective bargaining agreement.

(e) An employee whose title is changed in order to comply with this section shall not suffer any loss of employment status as a result of the title change, including, but not limited to, layoff, demotion, termination, reclassification, or loss of pay, seniority, benefits, or any other status or compensation related to the position.

(f) This section does not apply to professional trainers licensed by the State Athletic Commission.

4848.1.

(a) A veterinarian engaged in the practice of veterinary medicine, as defined in Section 4826, employed by the University of California and engaged in the performance of duties in connection with the School of Veterinary Medicine or employed by the Western University of Health Sciences and engaged in the performance of duties in connection with the College of Veterinary Medicine shall be issued a university license pursuant to this section or hold a license to practice veterinary medicine in this state.

(b) An individual may apply for and be issued a university license if all of the following are satisfied:

(1) The applicant is currently employed by the University of California or Western University of Health Sciences, as defined in subdivision (a).

(2) The applicant passes an examination concerning the statutes and regulations of this chapter, administered by the board, pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (5) of subdivision (a) of Section 4846.

(3) The applicant completes and submits the application specified by the board and pays the application and the initial license fee, pursuant to Section 4905.

(c) A university license:

(1) Shall automatically cease to be valid upon termination or cessation of employment by the University of California or by the Western University of Health Sciences.

(2) Shall be subject to the license renewal provisions in Section 4900 and the payment of the renewal fee pursuant to subdivision (g) of Section 4905.

(3) Shall be subject to denial, revocation, or suspension pursuant to Sections 480, 4875, and 4883.

(4) Authorizes the holder to practice veterinary medicine only at an educational institution described in subdivision (a) and any locations formally affiliated with those institutions.

(d) An individual who holds a university license is exempt from satisfying the license renewal requirements of Section 4846.5.

4996.22.

(a) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (d), the board shall not renew any license pursuant to this chapter unless the applicant certifies to the board, on a form prescribed by the board, that the applicant has completed not less than 36 hours of approved continuing education in or relevant to the field of social work in the preceding two years, as determined by the board.

(2) The board shall not renew any license of an applicant who began graduate study before January 1, 2004, pursuant to this chapter unless the applicant certifies to the board that during the applicant’s first renewal period after the operative date of this section, the applicant completed a continuing education course in spousal or partner abuse assessment, detection, and intervention strategies, including community resources, cultural factors, and same gender abuse dynamics. On and after January 1, 2005, the course shall consist of not less than seven hours of training. Equivalent courses in spousal or partner abuse assessment, detection, and intervention strategies taken before the operative date of this section or proof of equivalent teaching or practice experience may be submitted to the board and, at its discretion, may be accepted in satisfaction of this requirement. Continuing education courses taken pursuant to this paragraph shall be applied to the 36 hours of approved continuing education required under paragraph (1).

(3) The board shall not renew any registration pursuant to this chapter unless the registrant certifies under penalty of perjury to the board, and on a form prescribed by the board, that they have completed not less than three hours of continuing education in the subject of California law and ethics during the preceding year.

(b) (1) In determining its continuing education requirements, the board shall consider including a course in menopausal mental health.

(2) In determining its continuing education requirements, the board shall consider including a course in maternal mental health.

(c) The board shall have the right to audit the records of any applicant to verify the completion of the continuing education requirement. Applicants shall maintain records of completion of required continuing education coursework for a minimum of two years and shall make these records available to the board for auditing purposes upon request.

(d) The board may establish exceptions from the continuing education requirement of this section for good cause as defined by the board.

(e) The continuing education shall be obtained from one of the following sources:

(1) An accredited school of social work, as defined in Section 4991.2, or a school or department of social work that is a candidate for accreditation by the Commission on Accreditation of the Council on Social Work Education. Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed as requiring coursework to be offered as part of a regular degree program.

(2) A school, college, or university accredited by a regional or national institutional accrediting agency that is recognized by the United States Department of Education or a school, college, or university that is approved by the Bureau for Private Postsecondary Education.

(3) Another continuing education provider, as specified by the board by regulation.

(f) The board shall establish, by regulation, a procedure for identifying acceptable providers of continuing education courses, and all providers of continuing education, as described in paragraphs (1) and (2) of subdivision (e), shall adhere to the procedures established by the board. The board may revoke or deny the right of a provider to offer continuing education coursework pursuant to this section for failure to comply with this section or any regulation adopted pursuant to this section.

(g) Training, education, and coursework by approved providers shall incorporate one or more of the following:

(1) Aspects of the discipline that are fundamental to the understanding, or the practice, of social work.

(2) Aspects of the social work discipline in which significant recent developments have occurred.

(3) Aspects of other related disciplines that enhance the understanding, or the practice, of social work.

(h) A system of continuing education for licensed clinical social workers shall include courses directly related to the diagnosis, assessment, and treatment of the client population being served.

(i) The continuing education requirements of this section shall comply fully with the guidelines for mandatory continuing education established by the Department of Consumer Affairs pursuant to Section 166.

(j) The board may adopt regulations as necessary to implement this section.

5070.1.

(a) The board may establish, by regulation, a system for the placement of a license into a retired status, upon application, for certified public accountants and public accountants who are not actively engaged in the practice of public accountancy or any activity that requires them to be licensed by the board.

(b) No licensee with a license in a retired status shall engage in any activity for which a permit is required.

(c) The board shall deny an applicant’s application to place a license in a retired status if the permit is subject to an outstanding order of the board, is suspended or revoked, or is subject to disciplinary action under this chapter.

(1) For purposes of this subdivision, a permanent restricted practice order shall not be considered an outstanding order of the board provided the licensee has completed probation as part of any original discipline order.

(2) If a license is subject to a permanent restricted practice order at the time the board approves the license to be placed in a retired status, the permanent restricted practice order shall be reinstated if the license is restored from retired status to an active status and shall remain in effect until the board modifies or terminates the permanent restricted practice order.

(d) (1) The holder of a license that was canceled pursuant to Section 5070.7 may apply for the placement of that license in a retired status pursuant to subdivision (a).

(2) Upon approval of an application made pursuant to paragraph (1), the board shall reissue that license in a retired status.

(3) The holder of a canceled license that was placed in retired status between January 1, 1994, and January 1, 1999, inclusive, shall not be required to meet the qualifications established pursuant to subdivision (e), but shall be subject to all other requirements of this section.

(e) The board shall establish minimum qualifications to place a license in retired status.

(f) The board may exempt the holder of a license in a retired status from the renewal requirements described in Section 5070.5.

(g) The board shall establish minimum qualifications for the restoration of a license in a retired status to an active status. These minimum qualifications shall include, but are not limited to, continuing education and payment of a fee as provided in subdivision (h) of Section 5134.

(h) The board shall not restore to active or inactive status a license that was canceled by operation of law, pursuant to subdivision (a) of Section 5070.7, and then placed into retired status pursuant to subdivision (d). The individual shall instead apply for a new license, as described in subdivision (c) of Section 5070.7, in order to restore the individual’s license.

(i) At the time of application, if the applicant has a valid email address, the applicant shall provide that email address to the board.

5272.

(a) With the exception of Article 4 (commencing with Section 5300) and Sections 5400 to 5404, inclusive, this chapter does not apply to any advertising display used exclusively for any of the following purposes:

(1) To advertise the sale, lease, or exchange of real property on which the advertising display is placed.

(2) To advertise directions to, and the sale, lease, or exchange of, real property for which the advertising display is placed, provided that this exemption does not apply to advertising displays visible from a highway and subject to the Highway Beautification Act of 1965 (23 U.S.C. Sec. 131).

(3) To designate the name of the owner or occupant of the premises or to identify the premises.

(4) To advertise the business conducted, services rendered, or goods produced or sold on the property on which the advertising display is placed if the display is on the same side of the highway and within 1,000 feet of the point on the property or within 1,000 feet of the entrance to the site at which the business is conducted, services are rendered, or goods are produced or sold.

(5) To display only noncommercial public health, emergency, and safety messages from the County of San Joaquin, on public property and equipment owned and operated by the County of San Joaquin in conformance with state law, federal law, regulations, and agreements.

(b) With the exception of Article 4 (commencing with Section 5300) and Sections 5400 to 5404, inclusive, this chapter does not apply to any advertising display used exclusively either to advertise products, goods, or services sold by persons on the premises of an arena on a regular basis, or to advertise products, goods, or services marketed or promoted on the premises of an arena pursuant to a sponsorship marketing plan, if all of the following conditions are met:

(1) The arena is capable of providing a venue for professional sports on a permanent basis.

(2) The arena has a capacity of 15,000 or more seats.

(3) The advertising display is either of the following:

(A) Located on the premises of the arena.

(B) Has been authorized as of January 1, 2021, by, or in accordance with, a local ordinance, including, but not limited to, a specific plan or sign district adopted in connection with the approval of the arena by the city, county, or city and county, bears the name or logo of the arena, and is visible when approaching offramps from the interstate, primary, or state highways used to access the premises of the arena. No arena shall be permitted more than two advertising displays allowed under this subparagraph.

(c) (1) Any advertising display erected pursuant to subdivision (b) and located on the premises of the arena shall be lawful only if authorized by, or in accordance with, an ordinance, including, but not limited to, a specific plan or sign district, adopted by the city, county, or city and county, that regulates advertising displays on the premises of the arena by identifying the specific displays or establishing regulations that include, at a minimum, all of the following:

(A) Number of signs and total signage area allowed.

(B) Maximum individual signage area.

(C) Minimum sign separation.

(D) Illumination restrictions and regulations, including signage refresh rate, scrolling, and brightness.

(E) Illuminated sign hours of operation.

(2) Authorization of advertising displays under subdivision (b) is subject to the owner of the advertising display submitting to the department a copy of the ordinance adopted by the city, county, or city and county in which the arena is located authorizing the advertising display and, for signs located on the premises of the arena, identification of the provisions of the ordinance required under paragraph (1). The department shall certify that the proposed ordinance meets the minimum requirements contained in paragraph (1).

(3) An advertising display authorized pursuant to subdivision (b) shall not advertise products, goods, or services related to tobacco, firearms, or sexually explicit material.

(4) This chapter does not limit a local government from adopting ordinances prohibiting or further restricting the size, number, or type of advertising displays permitted by this section.

(d) As used in this section, “the premises of an arena” means either of the following:

(1) A venue for indoor or outdoor sports, concerts, or other events.

(2) Any development project or district encompassing the venue, adjacent to it, or separated from it only by public or private rights-of-way, the boundaries of which have been set by the city, county, or city and county in which the arena is located. The development project or district shall be contiguous and shall not extend more than 1,000 feet beyond the arena structure or any structure physically connected to the arena structure.

(e) As used in this section, “sponsorship marketing plan” means an agreement between the property owner, facility owner, facility operator, or occupant of the premises of an arena and a sponsor pursuant to which the sponsor is allowed to include its logo, slogan, or advertising on advertising displays and that meets both of the following conditions:

(1) The sponsorship marketing plan is for a period of not less than 120 days.

(2) The sponsorship marketing plan grants the sponsor the opportunity to display its logo, slogan, or advertising in the interior of structures on the premises of an arena, or conduct promotions, public relations, or marketing activities on the premises of an arena.

(f) Authorization of an advertising display under subdivision (b) that is a message center display is subject to the owner of the display complying with one of the following conditions:

(1) Making a message center display within the premises of the arena available on a space-available basis for use by the department or the Department of the California Highway Patrol for public service messages, including Emergency Alert System (Amber Alert) messages disseminated pursuant to Section 8594 of the Government Code, and messages containing, among other things, reports of commute times, drunk driving awareness messages, reports of accidents of a serious nature, and emergency disaster communications.

(2) Making a message center display not subject to this section that is under the control of the owner of the advertising display available on a space-available basis for public service messages in a location acceptable to the department and the Department of the California Highway Patrol.

(3) Providing funding to the department for the installation of a message center display to accommodate those public service messages, which may include funding as part of mitigation in connection with the approval of the arena by the city, county, or city and county.

(g) If an advertising display authorized under subdivision (b) is subject to a notice from the United States Department of Transportation, the Federal Highway Administration, or any other applicable federal agency to the state that the operation of that display will result in the reduction of federal aid highway funds provided in Section 131 of Title 23 of the United States Code, authorization of the display under subdivision (b) shall cease and the display owner shall remove all advertising copy from the display within 60 days after the state notifies the display owner of the receipt of the federal notice. Failure to remove the advertising copy pursuant to this subdivision shall result in a civil fine, imposed by the department, of ten thousand dollars ($10,000) per day until the advertising copy is removed. The department shall not assume any liability in connection with cessation of operation or removal of an advertising display or advertising copy pursuant to this subdivision.

(h) The city, county, or city and county adopting the ordinance authorizing the displays erected pursuant to this section shall have primary responsibility for ensuring that the displays remain in conformance with all provisions of the ordinance and of this section. If the city, county, or city and county fails to ensure that the displays remain in conformance with all provisions of the ordinance and of this section after 30 days of receipt of a written notice from the department, the city, county, or city and county shall hold the department harmless and indemnify the department for all costs incurred by the department to ensure compliance with the ordinance and this section or to defend actions challenging the adoption of the ordinance allowing the displays.

(i) An advertising display lawfully erected on or before December 31, 2013, in conformity with subdivision (e) of this section as it read on that date, shall remain authorized, subject to the terms of that subdivision.

5272.5.

The department shall, when renegotiating an agreement with the Federal Highway Administration on the state’s obligations pursuant to the Highway Beautification Act of 1965 (23 U.S.C. Sec. 131), include among its priorities support for advertising displays at arenas, as described in Section 5272.

7048.

(a) This chapter does not apply to a work or operation on one undertaking or project by one or more contracts if the aggregate contract price for labor, materials, and all other items is less than one thousand dollars ($1,000), that work or operation being considered of casual, minor, or inconsequential nature, and the work or operation does not require a building permit.

(b) This section does not apply in a case wherein the work of construction is only a part of a larger or major operation, whether undertaken by the same or a different contractor, or in which a division of the operation is made in contracts of amounts less than one thousand dollars ($1,000) for the purpose of evasion of this chapter or otherwise.

(c) This section does not apply to a person who does either of the following:

(1) Advertises or puts out a sign or card or other device that might indicate to the public that the person is a contractor or that the person is qualified to engage in the business of a contractor.

(2) Employs another person to perform, or assist in performing, the work or operation.

7363.

(a) A course in hairstyling established by a school shall consist of not less than 600 hours of practical and technical instruction.

(b) The curriculum for a hairstyling course shall include, at a minimum, technical and practical instruction in the following areas:

(1) One hundred hours in health and safety, which includes hazardous substances, chemical safety, safety data sheets, protection from hazardous chemicals, preventing chemical injuries, health and safety laws and regulations, and preventing communicable diseases.

(2) One hundred hours in disinfection and sanitation, which includes disinfection procedures to protect the health and safety of consumers as well as the technician and proper disinfection procedures for equipment used in establishments.

(3) (A) Two hundred hours in hairstyling services, which includes arranging, blow drying, cleansing, curling, dressing, hair analysis, shampooing, waving, and nonchemical straightening, and hair cutting including the use of shears, razors, electrical clippers and trimmers, and thinning shears, for wet and dry cutting.

(B) Instruction in hairstyling services shall include instruction regarding the provision of services to individuals with all hair types and textures, including, but not limited to, various curl or wave patterns, hair strand thicknesses, and volumes of hair.

8020.5.

(a) (1) The California state licensing examination shall consist of the following three divisible parts:

(A) English.

(B) Professional Practice.

(C) Dictation/Transcription (Machine/Skill).

(2) (A) The passing grades for the Dictation/Transcription part of the examination is 95 percent.

(B) (i) The passing grades for English and Professional Practice, the two written knowledge parts of the examination, shall be determined by the Angoff criterion-referenced method.

(ii) The passing scores may vary moderately with changes in test composition.

(iii) Any examinee who obtains a grade which equals or exceeds the passing score determined by the Angoff criterion-referenced method will be deemed to have passed the applicable portion of the examination, assuming the other requirements of this section are met.

(b) The board shall notify each examinee electronically or in writing of their pass or fail examination results.

(c) (1) An applicant shall take and pass all three parts of the examination within three consecutive years to have passed the examination.

(2) The three-year period shall begin from the date of the examination or any part of the examination for which the applicant is first scheduled.

(d) (1) After a period of four months has elapsed, an applicant may repeat any part of the examination.

(2) An applicant shall not repeat any part of the examination unless or until a new version of the examination has been introduced.

(e) Notwithstanding subdivision (c), an applicant who passes a part of the examination shall receive conditional credit for passing that part and may retake the remaining parts.

(f) The period of time designated in subdivision (c) may be extended by the board for a period of time not to exceed one year upon the showing of extraordinary extenuating circumstances.

(g) (1) Successful completion of the Certified Verbatim Reporter (CVR) or Certified Verbatim Reporter-Stenotype (CVR-S) certification administered through the National Verbatim Reporters Association satisfies the requirement to pass the Dictation/Transcription examination under subparagraph (C) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a).

(2) Applicants who passed the Certified Verbatim Reporter (CVR) or Certified Verbatim Reporter-Stenotype (CVR-S) are subject to the requirements identified under subdivision (a) for the English examination and the Professional Practice examination, all of which must be passed within three consecutive years, pursuant to subdivision (c), to have passed the California state licensing examination.

17580.

(a) A person who represents in advertising or on the label or container of a consumer good that the consumer good that it manufactures or distributes is not harmful to, or is beneficial to, the natural environment, through the use of such terms as “environmental choice,” “ecologically friendly,” “earth friendly,” “environmentally friendly,” “ecologically sound,” “environmentally sound,” “environmentally safe,” “ecologically safe,” “environmentally lite,” “green product,” or any other like term, or through the use of a chasing arrows symbol or by otherwise directing a consumer to recycle the consumer good, shall maintain in written form in its records all of the following information and documentation supporting the validity of the representation:

(1) The reasons the person believes the representation to be true.

(2) Any significant adverse environmental impacts directly associated with the production, distribution, use, and disposal of the consumer good.

(3) Any measures that are taken by the person to reduce the environmental impacts directly associated with the production, distribution, and disposal of the consumer good.

(4) Violations of any federal, state, or local permits directly associated with the production or distribution of the consumer good.

(5) Whether, if applicable, the consumer good conforms with the uniform standards contained in the Federal Trade Commission Guidelines for Environmental Marketing Claims for the use of the terms “recycled,” “recyclable,” “biodegradable,” “photodegradable,” or “ozone friendly.”

(6) If the person uses the term “recyclable,” uses a chasing arrows symbol, or otherwise directs a consumer to recycle the consumer good, whether the consumer good meets all of the criteria for statewide recyclability pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 42355.51 of the Public Resources Code.

(b) Information and documentation maintained pursuant to this section shall be furnished to any member of the public upon request.

(c) For purposes of this section, a wholesaler or retailer who does not initiate a representation by advertising or by placing the representation on a package shall not be deemed to have made the representation.

(d) It is the intent of the Legislature that the information and documentation supporting the validity of the representation maintained under this section shall be fully disclosed to the public, within the limits of all applicable laws.

(e) For purposes of this section, displaying a chasing arrows symbol or otherwise directing a consumer to recycle a consumer good shall not be considered misleading pursuant to Section 17580.5 or Section 42355.51 of the Public Resources Code if either of the following applies:

(1) The consumer good is required by any federal or California law or regulation to display a chasing arrows symbol, including, but not limited to, Section 103(b)(1) of the federal Mercury-Containing and Rechargeable Battery Management Act (42 U.S.C. Sec. 14322(b)(1)) and Section 25215.65 of the Health and Safety Code.

(2) The consumer good is a beverage container subject to the California Beverage Container Recycling and Litter Reduction Act (Division 12.1 (commencing with Section 14500) of the Public Resources Code).

(f) For purposes of this section, “chasing arrows symbol” means an equilateral triangle, formed by three arrows curved at their midpoints, depicting a clockwise path, with a short gap separating the apex of each arrow from the base of the adjacent arrow. “Chasing arrows symbol” also includes variants of that symbol that are likely to be interpreted by a consumer as an implication of recyclability, including, but not limited to, one or more arrows arranged in a circular pattern or around a globe.

(g) For purposes of this section, a direction to a consumer to properly dispose of or otherwise properly handle a consumer good at the end of its useful life shall not be considered “otherwise directing a consumer to recycle a consumer good” pursuant to subdivision (a) if both of the following requirements are met:

(1) The consumer good is subject to any of the following programs:

(A) Chapter 20 (commencing with Section 42970) of Part 3 of Division 30 of the Public Resources Code relating to product stewardship for carpets.

(B) The Used Mattress Recovery and Recycling Act (Chapter 21 (commencing with Section 42985) of Part 3 of Division 30 of the Public Resources Code).

(C) The California Tire Recycling Act (Chapter 17 (commencing with Section 42860) of Part 3 of Division 30 of the Public Resources Code).

(D) The Electronic Waste Recycling Act of 2003 (Chapter 8.5 (commencing with Section 42460) of Part 3 of Division 30 of the Public Resources Code).

(E) Article 10.3 (commencing with Section 25214.9) of Chapter 6.5 of Division 20 of the Health and Safety Code relating to electronic waste.

(F) The Rechargeable Battery Recycling Act of 2006 (Chapter 8.4 (commencing with Section 42451) of Part 3 of Division 30 of the Public Resources Code).

(G) The Cell Phone Recycling Act of 2004 (Chapter 8.7 (commencing with Section 42490) of Part 3 of Division 30 of the Public Resources Code).

(H) The paint product recovery program established pursuant to Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 48700) of Part 7 of Division 30 of the Public Resources Code.

(I) The Mercury Thermostat Collection Act of 2001 (Article 10.2.2 (commencing with Section 25214.8.10) of Chapter 6.5 of Division 20 of the Health and Safety Code).

(J) The Lead-Acid Battery Recycling Act of 2016 (Article 10.5 (commencing with Section 25215) of Chapter 6.5 of Division 20 of the Health and Safety Code).

(2) The direction to the consumer accurately instructs the consumer to dispose of the consumer good through participation in, and consistent with, one of the programs identified in paragraph (1) as that program applies to the consumer good.

(h) For purposes of this section, directing a consumer to compost or properly dispose of a consumer good through an organics recycling program shall not be considered “otherwise directing a consumer to recycle a consumer good” pursuant to subdivision (a).

19520.

(a) (1) Every person not required to be licensed under Article 4 (commencing with Section 19480) who participates in, or has anything to do with, the racing of horses in any of the following capacities shall be licensed by the board pursuant to rules and regulations that the board may adopt and upon the payment of a license fee fixed and determined by the board:

(A) Assistant trainer.

(B) Association employee.

(C) Bloodstock agent.

(D) Corporate officer.

(E) Driver.

(F) Exercise rider.

(G) Farrier.

(H) Jockey.

(I) Jockey agent.

(J) Jockey apprentice.

(K) Jockey valet.

(L) Off-track wagering personnel.

(M) Open claim owner.

(N) Outrider.

(O) Owner.

(P) Parimutuel employee.

(Q) Pony rider.

(R) Safety personnel.

(S) Special event personnel.

(T) Stable agent.

(U) Stable foreman.

(V) Stableworker.

(W) Stakeholder representative.

(X) Trainer.

(Y) Vendor or vendor employee.

(Z) Veterinarian.

(AA) Veterinarian assistant.

(2) Any license issued pursuant to this article shall include a current photograph of the licensed person.

(b) A person required to be licensed pursuant to this article shall not participate in any capacity in any horse race meeting without a valid and unrevoked license authorizing the participation.

(c) The board may adopt regulations to require outrider license applicants to pass both a written and an oral examination and to authorize outriders to exercise the duties and powers of the board set forth in Section 19440 as are delegated by the board.

(d) For purposes of this section, the following definitions apply:

(1) “Assistant trainer” means a person employed by a trainer that has passed the board-issued trainer’s examination but fails to meet the board’s minimum qualifications for a trainer’s license.

(2) “Association employee” means a person hired by a racing association that has access to the licensed inclosure. An “association employee” includes management of the racetrack and persons hired to work as maintenance, food service, media, security, and racing staff.

(3) “Bloodstock agent” means a person who for gain, gratuity, commission, or reward, in either money or goods, acts as an agent for the sale or purchase of any racehorse not their own that is eligible to race at an authorized race meeting in the state.

(4) “Corporate officer” means an officer, director, or partner, or an individual who holds 5 percent or more of outstanding shares, of an advance deposit wagering, mini-satellite wagering provider, simulcast service supplier, or totalizer company.

(5) “Driver” means a person who drives and controls the horse from a seated position on a two-wheel sulky.

(6) “Exercise rider” means a person mounted and exercising a horse within a licensed inclosure.

(7) “Farrier” means a person responsible for shoeing and caring for equine hooves. A “farrier” is also interchangeably referred to as a “horseshoer” or “plater.”

(8) “Jockey” means a race rider.

(9) “Jockey agent” means a person who represents a jockey whose main responsibility is to arrange and book mounts.

(10) “Jockey apprentice” means a race rider who otherwise meets the license qualifications of a jockey, but has not ridden the requisite number of winners, as established by the board.

(11) “Jockey valet” means a person responsible for preparing both jockey and horse for racing.

(12) “Off-track wagering personnel” means a person employed at an off-track simulcast wagering facility or a person employed to represent an organization overseeing off-track wagering at a simulcast location pursuant to section 19608.2.

(13) “Open-claim owner” means a prospective owner of a horse entered into a claiming race.

(14) “Outrider” means a person responsible for providing a safe environment during training or racing.

(15) “Owner” means the owner, part owner, or lessee of a horse. An interest only in the earnings of a horse does not constitute ownership.

(16) “Parimutuel employee” means a person hired to work for the company licensed to accept wagers on the outcome of a horse race. A “parimutuel employee” includes totalizer technicians and those persons employed by a licensed totalizer company.

(17) “Pony rider” means a person riding a pony horse on training or race days.

(18) “Safety personnel” means a person hired to provide security, medical services, or emergency services within a racing inclosure.

(19) “Special event personnel” means a person who works for the Breeders’ Cup World Championships when the event is held at a board-licensed racing facility or a person who is otherwise hired for a temporary racing event.

(20) “Stable agent” means a person who is the authorized representative of a stable or an owner that may act on their behalf in managing the schedule of races.

(21) “Stable foreman” means a person in charge of daily operations in a racing stable.

(22) “Stableworker” means a person employed at the operation of a stable at a board-licensed inclosure that is not more specifically described by another classification. This classification includes those who feed, groom, exercise, train, and conduct general care of horses.

(23) “Stakeholder representative” means a person whose constituents are located within a licensed inclosure. This includes clergy, union representatives, and representatives from state-recognized organizations of trainers or horsepersons.

(24) “Trainer” means a person who has passed the board’s trainer’s examination and otherwise meets the board’s qualifications for licensure as established pursuant to regulation.

(25) “Vendor or vendor employee” means a person who provides goods or services related to horse racing at a facility licensed by the board. A “vendor” includes persons who access the licensed inclosure for the purpose of delivering equine supplies or transporting equines and maintenance workers, media, food service staff, jockey room staff, and stable staff.

(26) “Veterinarian” means a California-licensed veterinarian.

(27) “Veterinarian assistant” means a person employed by a board-licensed veterinarian.

23399.5.

(a) (1) A license or permit is not required for the serving of alcoholic beverages in a limousine by any person operating a limousine service regulated by the Public Utilities Commission, provided there is no extra charge or fee for the alcoholic beverages.

(2) For purposes of this subdivision, there is no extra charge or fee for the alcoholic beverages when the fee charged for the limousine service is the same regardless of whether alcoholic beverages are served.

(b) (1) A license or permit is not required for the serving of alcoholic beverages as part of a hot air balloon ride service, provided there is no extra charge or fee for the alcoholic beverages.

(2) For purposes of this subdivision, there is no extra charge or fee for the alcoholic beverages when the fee charged for the hot air balloon ride service is the same regardless of whether alcoholic beverages are served.

(c) A license or permit is not required for the serving of wine or beer as part of any service provided by an establishment that is subject to regulation by the State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology under the Barbering and Cosmetology Act (Chapter 10 (commencing with Section 7301) of Division 3) if the following requirements are met:

(1) There is no extra charge or fee for the beer or wine. For purposes of this paragraph, there is no extra charge or fee for the beer or wine if the fee charged for the service is the same regardless of whether beer or wine is served.

(2) The license of the establishment providing the service is in good standing with the State Board of Barbering and Cosmetology.

(3) No more than 12 ounces of beer or 6 ounces of wine by the glass is offered to a client.

(4) The beer or wine is provided only during business hours and in no case later than 10 p.m.

(5) Nothing in this subdivision shall be construed to limit the authority of a city or city and county to restrict or limit the consumption of alcoholic beverages, as described in this subdivision, pursuant to Section 23791.

(d) A license or permit is not required for the serving of alcoholic beverages as part of the curriculum of an apprenticeship program for bartending or mixology, provided all of the following requirements are met:

(1) The apprenticeship program is approved by the Chief of the Division of Apprenticeship Standards pursuant to Section 3075 of the Labor Code.

(2) Students enrolled in the apprenticeship program are 21 years of age or older.

(3) The apprenticeship program adopts a policy that the students may taste, but may not consume, the alcoholic beverages served.

(4) There is no extra charge or fee for the alcoholic beverages served.

26051.5.

(a) An applicant for a state license issued pursuant to this division to conduct commercial cannabis activity, as defined in Section 26001, shall do all of the following:

(1) Except as provided in subparagraph (G), require that each owner, as defined in paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive, of subdivision (aq) of Section 26001, electronically submit to the Department of Justice fingerprint images and related information required by the Department of Justice for the purpose of obtaining information as to the existence and content of a record of state or federal convictions and state and federal arrests, and also information as to the existence and content of a record of state or federal convictions and arrests for which the Department of Justice establishes that the person is free on bail or on their own recognizance pending trial or appeal.

(A) Notwithstanding any other law, the department may obtain criminal history information from the Department of Justice and the Federal Bureau of Investigation for an applicant or its owners, as defined in paragraphs (1) to (3), inclusive, of subdivision (aq) of Section 26001, for any state license, as described in Section 26050, under this division pursuant to subdivision (u) of Section 11105 of the Penal Code.

(B) When received, the Department of Justice shall transmit fingerprint images and related information received pursuant to this section to the Federal Bureau of Investigation for the purpose of obtaining a federal criminal history records check. The Department of Justice shall review the information returned from the Federal Bureau of Investigation and compile and disseminate a response to the licensing authority.

(C) The Department of Justice shall provide a response to the licensing authority pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (p) of Section 11105 of the Penal Code.

(D) The department shall request from the Department of Justice subsequent notification service, as provided pursuant to Section 11105.2 of the Penal Code, for applicants.

(E) The Department of Justice shall charge the applicant a fee sufficient to cover the reasonable cost of processing the requests described in this paragraph.

(F) Notwithstanding any other law, a licensing authority may request and receive from a local or state agency certified records of all arrests and convictions, certified records regarding probation, and any and all other related documentation needed to complete an applicant or licensee investigation. A local or state agency may provide those records to a licensing authority upon request.

(G) If an owner has previously submitted fingerprint images and related information required by the Department of Justice pursuant to this paragraph in connection with a valid state license issued by a licensing authority, all of the following apply:

(i) The owner shall not be required to submit additional fingerprint images and related information pursuant to this paragraph in connection with a subsequent application for a state license.

(ii) The department shall not consider the owner’s criminal history information obtained from the fingerprint images and related information that were previously submitted pursuant to this paragraph when considering whether to issue a subsequent state license.

(iii) An owner shall not be required to resubmit owner-related information previously provided to the department.

(2) Provide evidence of the legal right to occupy and use the proposed location and provide a statement from the landowner of real property or that landowner’s agent where the commercial cannabis activity will occur, as proof to demonstrate the landowner has acknowledged and consented to permit commercial cannabis activities to be conducted on the property by the tenant applicant.

(3) Provide evidence that the proposed location is in compliance with subdivision (b) of Section 26054.

(4) Provide a statement, signed by the applicant under penalty of perjury, that the information provided is complete, true, and accurate.

(5) (A) (i) For an applicant with 20 or more employees, or an applicant with 10 or more employees that submits an application on or after July 1, 2024, provide a notarized statement that the applicant will enter into, or demonstrate that it has already entered into, and will abide by the terms of a labor peace agreement. On and after July 1, 2024, the department shall not renew a license for a licensee with 10 or more employees unless the licensee provides a statement that the licensee has already entered into and will abide by the terms of a labor peace agreement.

(ii) For an applicant with 10 or more employees but less than 20 employees that has not yet entered into a labor peace agreement, provide a notarized statement as a part of its application indicating that the applicant will enter into and abide by the terms of a labor peace agreement within 60 days of employing its 20th employee, or on or before July 1, 2024, whichever is earlier.

(iii) For an applicant with less than 10 employees that has not yet entered into a labor peace agreement, provide a notarized statement as a part of its application indicating that the applicant will enter into and abide by the terms of a labor peace agreement within 60 days of employing its 10th employee, or on or before July 1, 2024, whichever is later.

(iv) Nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to limit the authority of the department to revoke or suspend a license for a violation of this paragraph.

(B) Compliance with the terms of an applicable labor peace agreement is a condition of licensure. A licensee seeking renewal of any license shall attest to the department that it remains in compliance with the terms of any applicable labor peace agreement.

(C) Any labor organization, or any current or former employee of the relevant licensee, may report to the department that a licensee has failed to provide a truthful attestation of compliance with subparagraph (B).

(i) The reporting party shall provide documentation, in a form and manner required by the department, to substantiate their allegation before the department considers it. The department shall collaborate with such agencies as it deems relevant to evaluate the report.

(ii) If the department substantiates the validity of a report made pursuant to this subparagraph, the department may suspend, revoke, place on probation with terms and conditions, or otherwise discipline the license and fine the licensee.

(D) (i) Any labor organization, or any current or former employee of the relevant licensee, may file a complaint with the Agricultural Labor Relations Board that an organization with which a licensee has entered into a labor peace agreement is not a bona fide labor organization.

(ii) The Agricultural Labor Relations Board shall consider all relevant evidence provided or obtained in rendering a decision on whether the entity is a bona fide labor organization and issue a report with its findings no later than 90 days from receiving the complaint.

(iii) If the Agricultural Labor Relations Board determines that the entity is not a bona fide labor organization, the labor peace agreement shall be null and void. The department shall promptly notify all licensees that have signed labor peace agreements with the entity that the entity was found not to be a bona fide labor organization and offer those licensees a reasonable time period, not to exceed 180 days, to enter into a labor peace agreement with a bona fide labor organization. Failure to enter into a labor peace agreement with a bona fide labor organization after that reasonable time period shall be a violation of this section.

(E) For the purposes of this paragraph, all of the following shall apply:

(i) “Employee” does not include a supervisor.

(ii) “Labor organization” means any organization of any kind, or any agency or employee representation committee or plan, in which employees participate and which exists, in whole or in part, for the purpose of dealing with employers concerning grievances, labor disputes, wages, rates of pay, hours of employment, or conditions of work for employees.

(iii) “Supervisor” means an individual having authority, in the interest of the applicant, to hire, transfer, suspend, lay off, recall, promote, discharge, assign, reward, or discipline other employees, or responsibility to direct them or to adjust their grievances, or effectively to recommend such action, if, in connection with the foregoing, the exercise of that authority is not of a merely routine or clerical nature, but requires the use of independent judgment.

(6) Provide the applicant’s valid seller’s permit number issued pursuant to Part 1 (commencing with Section 6001) of Division 2 of the Revenue and Taxation Code or indicate that the applicant is currently applying for a seller’s permit.

(7) Provide any other information required by the department.

(8) For an applicant seeking a cultivation license, provide a statement declaring the applicant is an “agricultural employer,” as defined in the Alatorre-Zenovich-Dunlap-Berman Agricultural Labor Relations Act of 1975 (Part 3.5 (commencing with Section 1140) of Division 2 of the Labor Code), to the extent not prohibited by law.

(9) Pay all applicable fees required for licensure by the department.

(10) Provide proof of a bond to cover the costs of destruction of cannabis or cannabis products if necessitated by a violation of licensing requirements.

(11) (A) Provide a statement, upon initial application and application for renewal, that the applicant employs, or will employ within one year of receiving or renewing a license, one supervisor and one employee who have successfully completed a Division of Occupational Safety and Health 30-hour general industry outreach course offered by a training provider that is authorized by an OSHA Training Institute Education Center to provide the course. This paragraph shall not be construed to alter or amend existing requirements for employers to provide occupational safety and health training to employees.

(B) An applicant with only one employee shall not be subject to subparagraph (A).

(C) For purposes of this paragraph “employee” has the same meaning as provided in clause (i) of subparagraph (E) of paragraph (5) and “supervisor” has the same meaning as provided in clause (iii) subparagraph (E) of paragraph (5).

(b) An applicant shall also include in the application a detailed description of the applicant’s operating procedures for all of the following, as required by the department:

(1) Cultivation.

(2) Extraction and infusion methods.

(3) The transportation process.

(4) Inventory procedures.

(5) Quality control procedures.

(6) Security protocols.

(7) For applicants seeking licensure to cultivate, the source or sources of water the applicant will use for cultivation, as provided in subdivisions (a) to (c), inclusive, of Section 26060.1. For purposes of this paragraph, “cultivation” as used in Section 26060.1 shall have the same meaning as defined in Section 26001. The department shall consult with the State Water Resources Control Board and the Department of Fish and Wildlife in the implementation of this paragraph.

(c) The applicant shall also provide a complete detailed diagram of the proposed premises wherein the license privileges will be exercised, with sufficient particularity to enable ready determination of the bounds of the premises, showing all boundaries, dimensions, entrances and exits, interior partitions, walls, rooms, and common or shared entryways, and include a brief statement or description of the principal activity to be conducted therein, and, for licenses permitting cultivation, measurements of the planned canopy, including aggregate square footage and individual square footage of separate cultivation areas, if any, roads, water crossings, points of diversion, water storage, and all other facilities and infrastructure related to the cultivation.

(d) Provide a complete list of every person with a financial interest in the person applying for the license as required by the department. For purposes of this subdivision, “persons with a financial interest” does not include persons whose only interest in a licensee is an interest in a diversified mutual fund, blind trust, or similar instrument.

26152.2.

(a) The Attorney General, on behalf of the people, a city attorney, or a county counsel may bring and maintain an action to redress a violation of subdivisions (d), (e), (f), and (g) of Section 26152, or subdivision (b) of Section 111926 of the Health and Safety Code.

(b) (1) The Attorney General, a city attorney, or a county counsel who prevails in an action pursuant to this section shall be awarded injunctive relief.

(2) The Attorney General, a city attorney, or a county counsel may also be awarded either or both of the following:

(A) Reasonable attorney’s fees and costs.

(B) Civil penalties of not more than five thousand dollars ($5,000) per violation by a licensed cannabis business or an industrial hemp registrant and not more than thirty thousand dollars ($30,000) per violation by an unlicensed cannabis business or an unregistered business engaged in the sale of products that contain industrial hemp.

(3) The remedies provided in this section shall be in addition to any other remedies otherwise provided in any other law.

(c) In determining whether to award reasonable attorney’s fees and costs and civil penalties, and in assessing the amount of any civil penalty, the court shall consider factors the court determines to be relevant, including, but not limited to, all of the following:

(1) The gravity of the violation.

(2) The defendant’s good faith, or lack thereof.

(3) The defendant’s history of previous violations.

(d) Civil penalties awarded in an action brought pursuant to this section shall be distributed as described in subdivision (d) of Section 26038.

(e) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), a defendant shall not be subject to more than one action pursuant to this section in connection with the same, or substantially similar, advertising or marketing.

(2) This subdivision does not prohibit a subsequent action pursuant to this section to redress a recurring or continuing violation of Section 26152 or of Section 111926 of the Health and Safety Code, after the defendant has previously been found to have engaged in the same violation of Section 26152 or of Section 111926 of the Health and Safety Code or a substantially similar violation. Such an action may be brought and maintained if all of the following conditions are satisfied:

(A) The defendant has previously been found, in an action pursuant to this section, to have violated one or more subdivisions of Section 26152 or subdivision (b) of Section 111926 of the Health and Safety Code.

(B) The defendant subsequently engages in the same advertising or marketing, or substantially similar advertising or marketing, that was previously found to violate Section 26152 or subdivision (b) of Section 111926 of the Health and Safety Code.

(C) The subsequent action is limited to advertising or marketing that occurred after entry of judgment in the prior action.

(f) (1) The causes of action, remedies, and penalties provided by this section are cumulative to each other and to the causes of action, remedies, and penalties available under all other laws of this state.

(2) This section shall not be construed to limit the availability of any cause of action, remedy, or penalty otherwise available under any other law of this state.

(g) (1) This section shall not be construed to limit or otherwise alter, in any way, any other authority conferred by law upon the Attorney General, the department, or any other state or local officer or agency.

(2) An action brought pursuant to this section shall not have preclusive effect upon the Attorney General, the department, or any other state or local officer or agency.

26200.

(a) (1) Except as set forth in the Medicinal Cannabis Patients’ Right of Access Act (Chapter 26 (commencing with Section 26320)), this division shall not be interpreted to supersede or limit the authority of a local jurisdiction to adopt and enforce local ordinances to regulate businesses licensed under this division, including, but not limited to, local zoning and land use requirements, business license requirements, and requirements related to reducing exposure to secondhand smoke, or to completely prohibit the establishment or operation of one or more types of businesses licensed under this division within the local jurisdiction.

(2) Except as set forth in the Medicinal Cannabis Patients’ Right of Access Act (Chapter 26 (commencing with Section 26320)), this division shall not be interpreted to supersede or limit existing local authority for law enforcement activity, enforcement of local zoning requirements or local ordinances, or enforcement of local license, permit, or other authorization requirements.

(b) This division shall not be interpreted to require the department to undertake local law enforcement responsibilities, enforce local zoning requirements, or enforce local licensing, permitting, or other authorization requirements.

(c) A local jurisdiction shall notify the department upon revocation of any local license, permit, or authorization for a licensee to engage in commercial cannabis activity within the local jurisdiction. Within 60 days of being so informed, the department shall begin the process to determine whether a license issued to the licensee should be suspended or revoked pursuant to Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 26030).

(d) For facilities issued a state license that are located within the incorporated area of a city, the city shall have full power and authority to enforce this division and the regulations promulgated by the department, if delegated by the state. Notwithstanding Sections 101375, 101400, and 101405 of the Health and Safety Code or any contract entered into pursuant thereto, or any other law, the city shall assume complete responsibility for any regulatory function pursuant to this division within the city limits that would otherwise be performed by the county or any county officer or employee, including a county health officer, without liability, cost, or expense to the county.

(e) (1) This division does not prohibit the issuance of a state temporary event license to a licensee authorizing onsite cannabis sales to, and consumption by, persons 21 years of age or older at a county fair event, district agricultural association event, or at another venue expressly approved by a local jurisdiction for the purpose of holding temporary events of this nature, provided that the activities, at a minimum, comply with all the following:

(A) The requirements of subparagraphs (A) to (C), inclusive, of paragraph (2) of subdivision (g).

(B) All participants who are engaged in the onsite retail sale of cannabis or cannabis products at the event are licensed under this division to engage in that activity.

(C) The activities are otherwise consistent with regulations promulgated and adopted by the department governing state temporary event licenses, except as otherwise provided in paragraphs (6), (7), and (8).

(D) A state temporary event license shall only be issued in local jurisdictions that authorize such events.

(E) A licensee who submits an application for a state temporary event license shall, 60 days before the event, provide to the department a list of all licensees that will be providing onsite sales of cannabis or cannabis products at the event. If any changes occur in that list, the licensee shall provide the department with a final updated list to reflect those changes. A person shall not engage in the onsite retail sale of cannabis or cannabis products, or in any way participate in the event, who is not included in the list, including any updates, provided to the department.

(2) The department may impose a civil penalty on any person who violates this subdivision, or any regulations adopted by the department governing state temporary event licenses, in an amount up to three times the amount of the license fee for each violation, consistent with Sections 26018 and 26038.

(3) The department may require the event and all participants to cease operations without delay if in the opinion of the department or local law enforcement it is necessary to protect the immediate public health and safety of the people of the state. The department may also require the event organizer to immediately expel from the event any participant selling cannabis or cannabis products without a license from the department that authorizes the participant to sell cannabis or cannabis products. If the unlicensed participant does not leave the event, the department may require the event and all participants to cease operations immediately.

(4) The order by the department for the event to cease operations pursuant to paragraph (3) does not entitle the event organizer or any participant in the event to a hearing or an appeal of the decision. Chapter 3 (commencing with Section 490) of Division 1.5 and Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 26040) of this division shall not apply to the order by the department for the event to cease operations pursuant to paragraph (3).

(5) The smoking of cannabis or cannabis products at temporary events authorized pursuant to this subdivision is prohibited in locations where smoking is prohibited. For purposes of this section, “smoking” has the same meaning as defined in subdivision (c) of Section 22950.5.

(6) (A) All licensees who are issued a state temporary event license allowed pursuant to this subdivision may, upon completion or cessation of the temporary event, reconcile unsold inventory of cannabis or cannabis products and return it to the licensee’s retail premises.

(B) All unsold inventory of cannabis or cannabis products from the temporary event shall be noted in track and trace prior to transport.

(C) All unsold inventory of cannabis or cannabis products from the temporary event shall be in its original packaging in which it was placed pursuant to Chapter 12 (commencing with Section 26120).

(7) The inventory of cannabis or cannabis products authorized to be sold by a state temporary event license pursuant to this subdivision shall only be transported to and from the temporary event by a licensed distributor or licensed microbusiness.

(8) The department shall not deny an application for a state temporary event license pursuant to this subdivision solely on the basis that there is a license issued pursuant to the Alcoholic Beverage Control Act (Division 9 (commencing with Section 23000)) for the proposed premises of the event. Furthermore, the Department of Alcoholic Beverage Control shall not take any disciplinary action against a person licensed pursuant to the Alcoholic Beverage Control Act on the basis of a state temporary event license issued by the department to a licensee pursuant to this subdivision that utilizes the same premises as the person licensed pursuant to the Alcoholic Beverage Control Act.

(A) All on- and off-sale privileges of alcoholic beverages at the venue shall be suspended for the day of the event and shall not resume until 6 a.m. on the day after the event has ended.

(B) Alcohol consumption on the venue premises shall be strictly prohibited for the day of the event and shall not resume until 6 a.m. on the day after the event has ended.

(f) This division, or any regulations promulgated thereunder, shall not be deemed to limit the authority or remedies of a city, county, or city and county under any provision of law, including, but not limited to, Section 7 of Article XI of the California Constitution.

(g) (1) Notwithstanding paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 11362.3 of the Health and Safety Code, if all of the conditions in paragraph (2) are met, a local jurisdiction may allow for any of the following:

(A) Smoking, vaporizing, and ingesting of cannabis or cannabis products on the premises of a retailer or microbusiness licensed under this division that has been granted authority by a local jurisdiction to engage in onsite cannabis consumption.

(B) (i) Preparation or sale of noncannabis food or beverage products in compliance with all applicable provisions of the California Retail Food Code (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 113700) of Part 7 of Division 104 of the Health and Safety Code) by a retailer or microbusiness licensed under this division in the area where the consumption of cannabis is allowed.

(ii) For purposes of this subparagraph, “noncannabis food or beverage products” shall not include industrial hemp products or hemp products, as defined in Section 111920 of the Health and Safety Code.

(C) Live musical or other performances on the premises of a retailer or microbusiness licensed under this division in the area where the consumption of cannabis is allowed, and the sale of tickets for those performances.

(2) A local jurisdiction may allow any of the activities provided in paragraph (1) if all of the following conditions are met:

(A) Access to the area where cannabis consumption is allowed is restricted to persons 21 years of age or older and each entrance to the area prominently posts a warning that cannabis consumption, including smoking of cannabis, is permitted inside.

(B) Cannabis consumption is not visible from any public place or nonage-restricted area.

(C) Sale or consumption of alcohol or tobacco is not allowed on the premises.

(D) Noncannabis food or beverage products are not contaminated by or commingled with any cannabis products sold or served on the premises where the consumption of cannabis is allowed.

(E) (i) Smoking or vaporizing of any cannabis product by an employee or customer is not allowed in the food preparation, food storage, or warewashing area of a food facility located on the premises.

(ii) For purposes of this subparagraph, the following definitions apply:

(I) “Food facility” has the same meaning as that term is defined in Section 113789 of the Health and Safety Code.

(II) “Warewashing” has the same meaning as that term is defined in Section 113940 of the Health and Safety Code.

(F) The local jurisdiction considers whether to require adequate ventilation and filtration systems.

(i) Ventilation and filtration systems are considered adequate for the purpose of this subparagraph if they prevent smoke and odors from migrating to any other part of the building hosting the consumption lounge or any neighboring building or grounds.

(ii) Nothing in this subparagraph prohibits a local jurisdiction from allowing one or more forms of cannabis consumption on the premises of a retailer or microbusiness licensed under this division, including smoking, vaporizing, and ingesting of cannabis or cannabis products, while prohibiting other forms of cannabis consumption on the premises of a retailer or microbusiness licensed under this division.

(G) (i) Employees are permitted at their discretion and without penalty or sanction to wear a mask for respiration, including N95 and NIOSH N95 rated masks in any area where cannabis is smoked.

(ii) Employers are required to pay for the mask.

(H) When hired, employees who will be working where cannabis is smoked shall be provided in writing the State Department of Public Health or its successor’s guidance regarding secondhand cannabis smoke.

(I) A cannabis consumption lounge that offers onsite consumption of cannabis products shall include secondhand smoke in their analysis of potential work hazards for purposes of their injury and illness prevention programs required by Section 3203 of Title 8 of the California Code of Regulations.

(J) Loitering in or around the business is prohibited, and the retailer or microbusiness shall ensure the absence of loitering.

(h) This division shall not be interpreted to supersede Section 6404.5 of the Labor Code.

(i) This section does not alter or affect the prohibition on the sale of alcoholic beverages by a licensee, as provided in Section 26054, on or at a venue premises licensed under this division.

(j) If a retailer or microbusiness license issued under this division is suspended, the licensee shall not engage in activities authorized under subdivision (g) for the duration of the license suspension.

(k) All noncannabis food and beverages present, pursuant to this section, on the premises of a retailer or microbusiness licensed under this division shall be stored and displayed separately and distinctly from all cannabis and cannabis products present on the premises.

(l) Subdivision (g) does not authorize a retailer or microbusiness licensed under this division to prepare or sell industrial hemp, as defined in Section 11018.5 of the Health and Safety Code, or any products containing industrial hemp.

714.3.

(a) Any covenant, restriction, or condition contained in any deed, contract, security instrument, or other instrument affecting the transfer or sale of any interest in real property that either effectively prohibits or unreasonably restricts the construction or use of an accessory dwelling unit or junior accessory dwelling unit on a lot zoned for single-family residential use that meets the requirements of Article 2 (commencing with Section 66314) or Article 3 (commencing with Section 66333) of Chapter 13 of Division 1 of Title 7 of the Government Code is void and unenforceable.

(b) This section does not apply to provisions that impose reasonable restrictions on accessory dwelling units or junior accessory dwelling units. For purposes of this subdivision, “reasonable restrictions” means restrictions that do not unreasonably increase the cost to construct, effectively prohibit the construction of, or extinguish the ability to otherwise construct, an accessory dwelling unit or junior accessory dwelling unit consistent with the provisions of Article 2 (commencing with Section 66314) or Article 3 (commencing with Section 66333) of Chapter 13 of Division 1 of Title 7 of the Government Code.

798.56.

(a) A tenancy shall be terminated by the management only for one or more of the following reasons:

(1) Failure of the homeowner or resident to comply with a local ordinance or state law or regulation relating to mobilehomes within a reasonable time after the homeowner receives a notice of noncompliance from the appropriate governmental agency.

(2) Conduct by the homeowner or resident, upon the park premises, that constitutes a substantial annoyance to other homeowners or residents.

(3) (A) Conviction of the homeowner or resident for prostitution, for a violation of subdivision (d) of Section 243, paragraph (2) of subdivision (a), or subdivision (b), of Section 245, Section 288, or Section 451, of the Penal Code, or a felony controlled substance offense, if the act resulting in the conviction was committed anywhere on the premises of the mobilehome park, including, but not limited to, within the homeowner’s mobilehome.

(B) However, the tenancy shall not be terminated for the reason specified in this paragraph if the person convicted of the offense has permanently vacated, and does not subsequently reoccupy, the mobilehome.

(4) Failure of the homeowner or resident to comply with a reasonable rule or regulation of the park that is part of the rental agreement or any amendment thereto.

No act or omission of the homeowner or resident shall constitute a failure to comply with a reasonable rule or regulation unless and until the management has given the homeowner written notice of the alleged rule or regulation violation and the homeowner or resident has failed to adhere to the rule or regulation within seven days. However, if a homeowner has been given a written notice of an alleged violation of the same rule or regulation on three or more occasions within a 12-month period after the homeowner or resident has violated that rule or regulation, no written notice shall be required for a subsequent violation of the same rule or regulation.

This paragraph does not relieve the management from its obligation to demonstrate that a rule or regulation has in fact been violated.

(5) (A) Nonpayment of rent, utility charges, or reasonable incidental service charges; provided that the amount due has been unpaid for a period of at least five days from its due date, and provided that the homeowner shall be given a three-day written notice subsequent to that five-day period to pay the amount due or to vacate the tenancy. For purposes of this paragraph, the five-day period does not include the date the payment is due. The three-day written notice shall be given to the homeowner in the manner prescribed by Section 1162 of the Code of Civil Procedure. A copy of this notice shall be sent to the persons or entities specified in subdivision (b) of Section 798.55 within 10 days after notice is delivered to the homeowner. If the homeowner cures the default, the notice need not be sent. The notice may be given at the same time as the 60 days’ notice required for termination of the tenancy. A three-day notice given pursuant to this paragraph shall contain the following provisions printed in at least 12-point boldface type at the top of the notice, with the appropriate number written in the blank:

“Warning: This notice is the (insert number) three-day notice for nonpayment of rent, utility charges, or other reasonable incidental services that has been served upon you in the last 12 months. Pursuant to Civil Code Section 798.56 (a)(5)(E), if you have been given a three-day notice to either pay rent, utility charges, or other reasonable incidental services or to vacate your tenancy on three or more occasions within a 12-month period, management is not required to give you a further three-day period to pay rent or vacate the tenancy before your tenancy can be terminated.”

(B) Payment by the homeowner prior to the expiration of the three-day notice period shall cure a default under this paragraph. If the homeowner does not pay prior to the expiration of the three-day notice period, the homeowner shall remain liable for all payments due up until the time the tenancy is vacated.

(C) Payment by the legal owner, as defined in Section 18005.8 of the Health and Safety Code, any junior lienholder, as defined in Section 18005.3 of the Health and Safety Code, or the registered owner, as defined in Section 18009.5 of the Health and Safety Code, if other than the homeowner, on behalf of the homeowner prior to the expiration of 30 calendar days following the mailing of the notice to the legal owner, each junior lienholder, and the registered owner provided in subdivision (b) of Section 798.55, shall cure a default under this subdivision with respect to that payment.

(D) Cure of a default of rent, utility charges, or reasonable incidental service charges by the legal owner, any junior lienholder, or the registered owner, if other than the homeowner, as provided by this paragraph, shall not be exercised more than twice during a 12-month period.

(E) If a homeowner has been given a three-day notice to pay the amount due or to vacate the tenancy on three or more occasions within the preceding 12-month period and each notice includes the provisions specified in subparagraph (A) no written three-day notice shall be required in the case of a subsequent nonpayment of rent, utility charges, or reasonable incidental service charges.

In that event, the management shall give written notice to the homeowner in the manner prescribed by Section 1162 of the Code of Civil Procedure to remove the mobilehome from the park within a period of not less than 60 days, which period shall be specified in the notice. A copy of this notice shall be sent to the legal owner, each junior lienholder, and the registered owner of the mobilehome, if other than the homeowner, as specified in subdivision (b) of Section 798.55, by certified or registered mail, return receipt requested, within 10 days after notice is sent to the homeowner.

(F) When a copy of the 60 days’ notice described in subparagraph (E) is sent to the legal owner, each junior lienholder, and the registered owner of the mobilehome, if other than the homeowner, the default may be cured by any of them on behalf of the homeowner prior to the expiration of 30 calendar days following the mailing of the notice, if all of the following conditions exist:

(i) A copy of a three-day notice sent pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 798.55 to a homeowner for the nonpayment of rent, utility charges, or reasonable incidental service charges was not sent to the legal owner, junior lienholder, or registered owner, of the mobilehome, if other than the homeowner, during the preceding 12-month period.

(ii) The legal owner, junior lienholder, or registered owner of the mobilehome, if other than the homeowner, has not previously cured a default of the homeowner during the preceding 12-month period.

(iii) The legal owner, junior lienholder, or registered owner, if other than the homeowner, is not a financial institution or mobilehome dealer.

If the default is cured by the legal owner, junior lienholder, or registered owner within the 30-day period, the notice to remove the mobilehome from the park described in subparagraph (E) shall be rescinded.

(6) Condemnation of the park.

(7) Change of use of the park or any portion thereof, provided:

(A) The management gives the homeowners at least 60 days’ written notice that the management will be appearing before a local governmental board, commission, or body to request permits for a change of use of the mobilehome park.

(B) (i) After all required permits requesting a change of use have been approved by the local governmental board, commission, or body, the management shall give the homeowners six months’ or more written notice of termination of tenancy.

(ii) If the change of use requires no local governmental permits, then notice shall be given 12 months or more prior to the management’s determination that a change of use will occur. The management in the notice shall disclose and describe in detail the nature of the change of use.

(C) The management gives each proposed homeowner written notice thereof prior to the inception of the proposed homeowner’s tenancy that the management is requesting a change of use before local governmental bodies or that a change of use request has been granted.

(D) The notice requirements for termination of tenancy set forth in this section and Section 798.57 shall be followed if the proposed change actually occurs.

(E) A notice of a proposed change of use given prior to January 1, 1980, that conforms to the requirements in effect at that time shall be valid. The requirements for a notice of a proposed change of use imposed by this paragraph shall be governed by the law in effect at the time the notice was given.

(b) The report required pursuant to subdivisions (b) and (i) of Section 65863.7 of the Government Code shall be given to the homeowners or residents at the same time that notice is required pursuant to paragraph (7) of subdivision (a) of this section.

(c) A tenancy shall not be terminated pursuant to paragraph (5) or (7) of subdivision (a) and a notice of termination based thereon shall not be issued pursuant to Section 798.55 unless the park has a valid permit to operate issued by the enforcement agency pursuant to Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 18500) of Part 2.1 of Division 13 of the Health and Safety Code.

(d) For purposes of this section, “financial institution” means a state or national bank, state or federal savings and loan association or credit union, or similar organization, and mobilehome dealer as defined in Section 18002.6 of the Health and Safety Code or any other organization that, as part of its usual course of business, originates, owns, or provides loan servicing for loans secured by a mobilehome.

(e) This section shall become operative on February 1, 2025.

835.

(a) As used in this chapter, “electrified security fence” means any fence, other than an electrified fence as defined in Section 17151 of the Food and Agricultural Code, that meets the following requirements:

(1) The electrified security fence is powered by an electrical energizer, driven by solar-charged batteries of no more than 12 volts of direct current, with both of the following output characteristics:

(A) The impulse repetition rate does not exceed 1 hertz (hz).

(B) The impulse duration does not exceed 10 milliseconds, or ¹⁰/₁₀₀₀ of a second.

(2) The electrified security fence is used to protect and secure manufacturing or industrial property, or property zoned under another designation, but legally authorized to be used for a commercial purpose that stores, parks, services, sells, or rents vehicles, vessels, equipment, materials, freight, or utility infrastructure within an outdoor lot or yard, provided that the secured area does not include any existing residential or hospitality uses.

(b) An owner of real property may install and operate an electrified security fence on their property, subject to all of the following:

(1) The property is not located in a residential zone and falls within the description of property described in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a).

(2) The electrified security fence meets the standards and specifications of the International Electrotechnical Commission for electric security fence energizers in “International Standard IEC 60335, Part 2-76:2018.”

(3) The electrified security fence is identified by prominently placed warning signs that are legible from both sides of the fence. At a minimum, the warning signs shall meet all of the following criteria:

(A) The warning signs are placed at each gate and access point, and at intervals along the electrified security fence not exceeding 30 feet.

(B) The warning signs are adjacent to any other signs relating to chemical, radiological, or biological hazards.

(C) The warning signs are marked with a written warning or a commonly recognized symbol for shock, a written warning or a commonly recognized symbol to warn people with pacemakers, and a written warning or commonly recognized symbol about the danger of touching the electrified security fence in wet conditions.

(4) The height of the electrified security fence does not exceed 10 feet or 2 feet higher than an existing nonelectrified perimeter fence or wall, whichever is greater. The electrified security fence shall be located behind a nonelectrified perimeter fence or wall that is not less than five feet in height.

(5) The electrified security fence includes a device that enables first responders to deactivate the electrified security fence in response to an emergency, if utilized by a city, county, or city and county.

(c) The electrified security fence may interface with a monitored alarm device in a manner that enables the alarm system to transmit a signal intended to summon the business, a monitoring service, or both the business and a monitoring service, in response to an intrusion or burglary.

(d) (1) An owner of real property not specified in paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) shall not install or operate an electrified security fence where a local ordinance prohibits the installation or operation of an electrified security fence. A local ordinance may prohibit the installation and operation of an electrified security fence that does not comply with subdivisions (a) to (c), inclusive. A local ordinance that prohibits or regulates only the installation or operation of an electrified fence as defined in Section 17151 of the Food and Agricultural Code shall not be construed to apply to an electrified security fence.

(2) For property specified under paragraph (2) of subdivision (a), and in compliance with subdivisions (a) to (c), inclusive, a city, county, or city and county ordinance, regulation, or code shall not prohibit the installation and operation of an electrified security fence, nor require a permit or approval that is in addition to an alarm system permit issued by the city, county, or city and county. A city, county, or city and county may require an administrative permit confirming the fence meets the requirements of this section if it is on a property abutting a property in residential use, or within 300 feet of a public park, childcare facility, recreation center, community center, or school facility.

(e) Nothing in this section shall be construed to alter the authority of a jurisdiction to adopt and enforce an ordinance relating to nonelectrified perimeter fences or walls as legally authorized, if applicable.

(f) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2028, and as of that date is repealed.

1770.

(a) The unfair methods of competition and unfair or deceptive acts or practices listed in this subdivision undertaken by any person in a transaction intended to result or that results in the sale or lease of goods or services to any consumer are unlawful:

(1) Passing off goods or services as those of another.

(2) Misrepresenting the source, sponsorship, approval, or certification of goods or services.

(3) Misrepresenting the affiliation, connection, or association with, or certification by, another.

(4) Using deceptive representations or designations of geographic origin in connection with goods or services.

(5) Representing that goods or services have sponsorship, approval, characteristics, ingredients, uses, benefits, or quantities that they do not have or that a person has a sponsorship, approval, status, affiliation, or connection that the person does not have.

(6) Representing that goods are original or new if they have deteriorated unreasonably or are altered, reconditioned, reclaimed, used, or secondhand.

(7) Representing that goods or services are of a particular standard, quality, or grade, or that goods are of a particular style or model, if they are of another.

(8) Disparaging the goods, services, or business of another by false or misleading representation of fact.

(9) Advertising goods or services with intent not to sell them as advertised.

(10) Advertising goods or services with intent not to supply reasonably expectable demand, unless the advertisement discloses a limitation of quantity.

(11) Advertising furniture without clearly indicating that it is unassembled if that is the case.

(12) Advertising the price of unassembled furniture without clearly indicating the assembled price of that furniture if the same furniture is available assembled from the seller.

(13) Making false or misleading statements of fact concerning reasons for, existence of, or amounts of, price reductions.

(14) Representing that a transaction confers or involves rights, remedies, or obligations that it does not have or involve, or that are prohibited by law.

(15) Representing that a part, replacement, or repair service is needed when it is not.

(16) Representing that the subject of a transaction has been supplied in accordance with a previous representation when it has not.

(17) Representing that the consumer will receive a rebate, discount, or other economic benefit, if the earning of the benefit is contingent on an event to occur subsequent to the consummation of the transaction.

(18) Misrepresenting the authority of a salesperson, representative, or agent to negotiate the final terms of a transaction with a consumer.

(19) Inserting an unconscionable provision in the contract.

(20) Advertising that a product is being offered at a specific price plus a specific percentage of that price unless (A) the total price is set forth in the advertisement, which may include, but is not limited to, shelf tags, displays, and media advertising, in a size larger than any other price in that advertisement, and (B) the specific price plus a specific percentage of that price represents a markup from the seller’s costs or from the wholesale price of the product. This subdivision shall not apply to in-store advertising by businesses that are open only to members or cooperative organizations organized pursuant to Division 3 (commencing with Section 12000) of Title 1 of the Corporations Code if more than 50 percent of purchases are made at the specific price set forth in the advertisement.

(21) Selling or leasing goods in violation of Chapter 4 (commencing with Section 1797.8) of Title 1.7.

(22) (A) Disseminating an unsolicited prerecorded message by telephone without an unrecorded, natural voice first informing the person answering the telephone of the name of the caller or the organization being represented, and either the address or the telephone number of the caller, and without obtaining the consent of that person to listen to the prerecorded message.

(B) This subdivision does not apply to a message disseminated to a business associate, customer, or other person having an established relationship with the person or organization making the call, to a call for the purpose of collecting an existing obligation, or to any call generated at the request of the recipient.

(23) (A) The home solicitation, as defined in subdivision (h) of Section 1761, of a consumer who is a senior citizen where a loan or assessment is made encumbering the primary residence of that consumer for purposes of paying for home improvements and where the transaction is part of a pattern or practice in violation of any of the following:

(i) Subsection (h) or (i) of Section 1639 of Title 15 of the United States Code.

(ii) Paragraph (1), (2), or (4) of subdivision (a) of Section 226.34 of Title 12 of the Code of Federal Regulations.

(iii) Section 22684, 22685, 22686, or 22687 of the Financial Code.

(iv) Section 5898.16, 5898.17, 5913, 5922, 5923, 5924, 5925, 5926, or 5940 of the Streets and Highways Code.

(B) A third party shall not be liable under this subdivision unless (i) there was an agency relationship between the party who engaged in home solicitation and the third party, or (ii) the third party had actual knowledge of, or participated in, the unfair or deceptive transaction. A third party who is a holder in due course under a home solicitation transaction shall not be liable under this subdivision.

(24) (A) Charging or receiving an unreasonable fee to prepare, aid, or advise any prospective applicant, applicant, or recipient in the procurement, maintenance, or securing of public social services.

(B) For purposes of this paragraph:

(i) “Public social services” means those activities and functions of state and local government administered or supervised by the State Department of Health Care Services, the State Department of Public Health, or the State Department of Social Services, and involved in providing aid or services, or both, including health care services, and medical assistance, to those persons who, because of their economic circumstances or social condition, are in need of that aid or those services and may benefit from them.

(ii) “Public social services” also includes activities and functions administered or supervised by the United States Department of Veterans Affairs or the California Department of Veterans Affairs involved in providing aid or services, or both, to veterans, including pension benefits.

(iii) “Unreasonable fee” means a fee that is exorbitant and disproportionate to the services performed. Factors to be considered, if appropriate, in determining the reasonableness of a fee, are based on the circumstances existing at the time of the service and shall include, but not be limited to, all of the following:

(I) The time and effort required.

(II) The novelty and difficulty of the services.

(III) The skill required to perform the services.

(IV) The nature and length of the professional relationship.

(V) The experience, reputation, and ability of the person providing the services.

(C) This paragraph shall not apply to attorneys licensed to practice law in California, who are subject to the California Rules of Professional Conduct and to the mandatory fee arbitration provisions of Article 13 (commencing with Section 6200) of Chapter 4 of Division 3 of the Business and Professions Code, when the fees charged or received are for providing representation in administrative agency appeal proceedings or court proceedings for purposes of procuring, maintaining, or securing public social services on behalf of a person or group of persons.

(25) (A) Advertising or promoting any event, presentation, seminar, workshop, or other public gathering regarding veterans’ benefits or entitlements that does not include the following statement in the same type size and font as the term “veteran” or any variation of that term:

(i) “I am not authorized to file an initial application for Veterans’ Aid and Attendance benefits on your behalf, or to represent you before the Board of Veterans’ Appeals within the United States Department of Veterans Affairs in any proceeding on any matter, including an application for those benefits. It would be illegal for me to accept a fee for preparing that application on your behalf.” The requirements of this clause do not apply to a person licensed to act as an agent or attorney in proceedings before the Agency of Original Jurisdiction and the Board of Veterans’ Appeals within the United States Department of Veterans Affairs when that person is offering those services at the advertised event.

(ii) The statement in clause (i) shall also be disseminated, both orally and in writing, at the beginning of any event, presentation, seminar, workshop, or public gathering regarding veterans’ benefits or entitlements.

(B) Advertising or promoting any event, presentation, seminar, workshop, or other public gathering regarding veterans’ benefits or entitlements that is not sponsored by, or affiliated with, the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, the California Department of Veterans Affairs, or any other congressionally chartered or recognized organization of honorably discharged members of the Armed Forces of the United States, or any of their auxiliaries that does not include the following statement, in the same type size and font as the term “veteran” or the variation of that term:

“This event is not sponsored by, or affiliated with, the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, the California Department of Veterans Affairs, or any other congressionally chartered or recognized organization of honorably discharged members of the Armed Forces of the United States, or any of their auxiliaries. None of the insurance products promoted at this sales event are endorsed by those organizations, all of which offer free advice to veterans about how to qualify and apply for benefits.”

(i) The statement in this subparagraph shall be disseminated, both orally and in writing, at the beginning of any event, presentation, seminar, workshop, or public gathering regarding veterans’ benefits or entitlements.

(ii) The requirements of this subparagraph shall not apply in a case where the United States Department of Veterans Affairs, the California Department of Veterans Affairs, or other congressionally chartered or recognized organization of honorably discharged members of the Armed Forces of the United States, or any of their auxiliaries have granted written permission to the advertiser or promoter for the use of its name, symbol, or insignia to advertise or promote the event, presentation, seminar, workshop, or other public gathering.

(26) Advertising, offering for sale, or selling a financial product that is illegal under state or federal law, including any cash payment for the assignment to a third party of the consumer’s right to receive future pension or veteran’s benefits.

(27) Representing that a product is made in California by using a Made in California label created pursuant to Section 12098.10 of the Government Code, unless the product complies with Section 12098.10 of the Government Code.

(28) (A) Failing to include either of the following in a solicitation by a covered person, or an entity acting on behalf of a covered person, to a consumer for a consumer financial product or service:

(i) The name of the covered person, and, if applicable, the entity acting on behalf of the covered person, and relevant contact information, including a mailing address and telephone number.

(ii) (I) The following disclosure statement in at least 18-point bold type and in the language in which a solicitation described by this paragraph is drafted: “THIS IS AN ADVERTISEMENT. YOU ARE NOT REQUIRED TO MAKE ANY PAYMENT OR TAKE ANY OTHER ACTION IN RESPONSE TO THIS OFFER.”

(II) (ia) The disclosure statement described in subclause (I) shall appear in at least 16-point bold type on the front of an envelope that contains a solicitation described by this paragraph.

(ib) This subclause applies only to solicitations made by physical mail.

(B) For purposes of this paragraph:

(i) “Consumer financial product or service” has the same meaning as defined in Section 90005 of the Financial Code.

(ii) (I) “Covered person” has the same meaning as defined in Section 90005 of the Financial Code.

(II) “Covered person” does not mean an entity exempt from Division 24 (commencing with Section 90000) of the Financial Code pursuant to Section 90002 of the Financial Code.

(iii) “Solicitation” means an advertisement or marketing communication through writing or graphics that is directed to, or likely to give the impression of being directed to, an individually identified person, residence, or business location. “Solicitation” does not include any of the following:

(I) Communication through a mass advertisement, including in a catalog, on a radio or television broadcast, or on a publicly accessible internet website, if that communication is not directed to, or is not likely to give the impression of being directed to, an individually identified person, residence, or business location.

(II) Communication via a telephone, mail, or electronic communication that was initiated by a consumer.

(III) A written credit or insurance solicitation that is subject to the disclosure requirements of subsection (d) of Section 1681m of Title 15 of the United States Code.

(29) (A) Advertising, displaying, or offering a price for a good or service that does not include all mandatory fees or charges other than either of the following:

(i) Taxes or fees imposed by a government on the transaction.

(ii) Postage or carriage charges that will be reasonably and actually incurred to ship the physical good to the consumer.

(B) Compliance by a person providing broadband internet access service on its own or as part of a bundle, as defined in Section 8.1(b) of Title 47 of the Code of Federal Regulations, with the broadband consumer label requirements adopted by the Federal Communications Commission in FCC 22-86 on November 14, 2022, codified in Section 8.1(a) of Title 47 of the Code of Federal Regulations, shall be deemed compliance with this paragraph.

(C) (i) For purposes of this subparagraph, “financial entity” means an entity that is exempt from Division 24 (commencing with Section 90000) of the Financial Code pursuant to Section 90002 of the Financial Code.

(ii) A financial entity that is required to provide disclosures in compliance with any of the following federal or state acts or regulations with respect to a financial transaction is exempt from this paragraph for purposes of that financial transaction:

(I) The federal Truth in Savings Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. Sec. 4301 et seq.).

(II) The federal Electronic Fund Transfer Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. Sec. 1693 et seq.).

(III) Section 19 of the Federal Reserve Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. Sec. 461 et seq.).

(IV) The federal Truth in Lending Act, as amended (15 U.S.C. Sec. 1601 et seq.).

(V) The federal Real Estate Settlement Procedures Act, as amended (12 U.S.C. Sec. 2601 et seq.).

(VI) The federal Home Ownership and Equity Protection Act (15 U.S.C. Sec. 1639).

(VII) Any regulation adopted pursuant to any of the federal acts in subclauses (I) to (VI), inclusive.

(VIII) The California Financing Law (Division 9 (commencing with Section 22000) of the Financial Code).

(IX) The California Residential Mortgage Lending Act (Division 20 (commencing with Section 50000) of the Financial Code).

(X) The Real Estate Law (Part 1 (commencing with Section 10000) of Division 4 of the Business and Professions Code).

(XI) Any regulation adopted pursuant to any of the state acts in subclauses (VIII) to (X), inclusive.

(D) (i) Subject to clause (ii), this paragraph does not apply to a mandatory fee or charge for individual food or beverage items sold directly to a customer by a restaurant, bar, food concession, grocery store, or grocery delivery service, or by means of a menu or contract for banquet or catering services that fully discloses the terms of service.

(ii) A mandatory fee or charge under clause (i) shall be clearly and conspicuously displayed, with an explanation of its purpose, on any advertisement, menu, or other display that contains the price of the food or beverage item.

(iii) “Grocery delivery service” means a company owned by, or under contract with, a grocery store or distributor that delivers food, primarily fresh produce, meat, poultry, fish, deli products, dairy products, perishable beverages, baked foods, and prepared foods, from the grocery store or distributor to a consumer.

(iv) The exemption in this subparagraph does not apply to a “third-party food delivery platform,” as defined in Section 113930.5 of the Health and Safety Code, or any other food delivery platform.

(b) (1) It is an unfair or deceptive act or practice for a mortgage broker or lender, directly or indirectly, to use a home improvement contractor to negotiate the terms of any loan that is secured, whether in whole or in part, by the residence of the borrower and that is used to finance a home improvement contract or any portion of a home improvement contract. For purposes of this subdivision, “mortgage broker or lender” includes a finance lender licensed pursuant to the California Financing Law (Division 9 (commencing with Section 22000) of the Financial Code), a residential mortgage lender licensed pursuant to the California Residential Mortgage Lending Act (Division 20 (commencing with Section 50000) of the Financial Code), or a real estate broker licensed under the Real Estate Law (Division 4 (commencing with Section 10000) of the Business and Professions Code).

(2) This section shall not be construed to either authorize or prohibit a home improvement contractor from referring a consumer to a mortgage broker or lender by this subdivision. However, a home improvement contractor may refer a consumer to a mortgage lender or broker if that referral does not violate Section 7157 of the Business and Professions Code or any other law. A mortgage lender or broker may purchase an executed home improvement contract if that purchase does not violate Section 7157 of the Business and Professions Code or any other law. Nothing in this paragraph shall have any effect on the application of Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1801) of Title 2 to a home improvement transaction or the financing of a home improvement transaction.

(c) As of July 1, 2025, any disclosure, advertisement, or notice that is required to be “clearly” or “clearly and conspicuously” made must have text that is “clear and conspicuous,” as defined in subdivision (u) of Section 1791.

(d) This section shall become operative on July 1, 2024.

1785.11.11.

(a) (1) A consumer credit reporting agency shall place a security freeze for a protected consumer if both of the following occur:

(A) The consumer credit reporting agency receives a request from the protected consumer’s representative for the placement of the security freeze pursuant to this section.

(B) The protected consumer’s representative does all of the following:

(i) Submits the request to the consumer credit reporting agency at the address or other point of contact and in the manner specified by the consumer credit reporting agency.

(ii) Provides to the consumer credit reporting agency sufficient proof of identification of the protected consumer and the representative.

(iii) Provides to the consumer credit reporting agency sufficient proof of authority to act on behalf of the protected consumer.

(iv) Pays to the consumer credit reporting agency a fee as authorized by subdivision (i).

(2) (A) If the request for the placement or removal of a security freeze is for a protected consumer who has been placed in a foster care setting, the credit reporting agency shall deem the requirements of clauses (ii) and (iii) of subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) to have been met if the request is from a county welfare department or a county probation department appearing on the most recent list provided or available to a consumer credit reporting agency by the State Department of Social Services and the requesting entity provides sufficient proof of identification under 15 U.S.C. Sec. 1681c-1(j)(1)(G). A county welfare department or county probation department shall not have the authority to request a security freeze for a protected consumer placed in foster care that continues beyond the protected consumer’s 18th birthday. A consumer credit reporting agency may use whatever lawful mechanism is available to it, including mechanisms for thawing or unfreezing reports by dates certain, to ensure the freeze does not extend beyond a protected consumer’s 18th birthday.

(B) Notwithstanding any other law, the State Department of Social Services may, at the request of a consumer credit reporting agency, provide or, in the State Department of Social Service’s discretion, otherwise make available to consumer reporting agencies in any other manner, a list of county welfare departments or county probation departments whose employees may be representatives of protected consumers who have been placed in a foster care setting.

(b) If a consumer credit reporting agency does not have a file pertaining to a protected consumer when the consumer credit reporting agency receives a request pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a), the consumer credit reporting agency shall create a record for the protected consumer.

(c) If a protected consumer’s representative requests a security freeze, the consumer credit reporting agency shall disclose the process for placing and removing a security freeze.

(d) Within 30 days after receiving a request that meets the requirements of subdivision (a), a consumer credit reporting agency shall place a security freeze for the protected consumer. The consumer credit reporting agency shall send written confirmation of the security freeze to the address on file within 10 days of the placement of the security freeze.

(e) Unless a security freeze for a protected consumer is removed pursuant to subdivision (h) or (j), a consumer credit reporting agency shall not release the protected consumer’s consumer credit report, any information derived from the protected consumer’s consumer credit report, or any record created for the protected consumer.

(f) A security freeze for a protected consumer placed pursuant to this section shall remain in effect until either of the following occurs:

(1) The protected consumer or the protected consumer’s representative requests that the consumer credit reporting agency remove the security freeze in accordance with subdivision (h).

(2) The security freeze is removed in accordance with subdivision (j).

(g) To remove a security freeze, a protected consumer or a protected consumer’s representative shall do all of the following:

(1) Submit a request for removal of the security freeze to the consumer credit reporting agency at the address or other point of contact and in the manner specified by the consumer credit reporting agency.

(2) Provide to the consumer credit reporting agency:

(A) If the request is made by the protected consumer:

(i) Proof that the sufficient proof of authority for the protected consumer’s representative to act on behalf of the protected consumer is no longer valid, they have been emancipated, or they are 16 years of age or older.

(ii) Sufficient proof of identification of the protected consumer.

(B) If the request is made by the representative of a protected consumer:

(i) Sufficient proof of identification of the protected consumer and the representative.

(ii) Sufficient proof of authority to act on behalf of the protected consumer.

(3) Pay to the consumer credit reporting agency a fee as authorized by subdivision (i).

(h) Within 30 days after receiving a request that meets the requirements of subdivision (g), a consumer credit reporting agency shall remove a security freeze for a protected consumer.

(i) (1) Except as provided in paragraph (2), a consumer credit reporting agency may not charge a fee for any service performed pursuant to this section.

(2) A consumer credit reporting agency is authorized to charge a reasonable fee, not exceeding ten dollars ($10), for each placement or removal of a security freeze for a protected consumer.

(3) Notwithstanding paragraph (2), a consumer credit reporting agency shall not charge any fee pursuant to this section under any of the following circumstances:

(A) The protected consumer’s representative has received a report of alleged identity theft against the protected consumer under Section 530.5 of the Penal Code and has provided copy of the report to the consumer credit reporting agency.

(B) The request for the placement or removal of a security freeze is for a protected consumer who is under 16 years of age at the time of the request and the consumer credit reporting agency has a report pertaining to the protected consumer.

(C) The request for the placement or removal of a security freeze is for a protected consumer who has been placed in a foster care setting.

(j) (1) A consumer credit reporting agency is authorized to remove a security freeze for a protected consumer or to delete a record of a protected consumer if the security freeze was placed or the record was created based upon a material misrepresentation of fact by the protected consumer or the protected consumer’s representative.

(2) With respect to a security freeze placed for a protected consumer under paragraph (2) of subdivision (a), the freeze may be removed prior to the protected consumer’s 18th birthday at the request of the representative of the protected consumer, or by the protected consumer if the protected consumer is 16 years of age or older at the time they make the request, under any of the following circumstances:

(A) Upon the protected consumer’s removal from foster care.

(B) Upon the protected consumer’s request, if the protected consumer is 16 years of age or older.

(C) Upon a determination by the representative of the protected consumer that removal of the security freeze is in the best interest of the protected consumer.

(3) A representative of the protected consumer may also remove the freeze pursuant to paragraph (2) at a time when the representative inquires with each of the three major credit reporting agencies pursuant to paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 10618.6 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

(k) A consumer credit reporting agency may develop procedures involving the use of telephone, mail, fax, the internet, or other electronic media to receive and process a request for a protected consumer’s security freeze to be placed or removed.

1798.130.

Notice, Disclosure, Correction, and Deletion Requirements

(a) In order to comply with Sections 1798.100, 1798.105, 1798.106, 1798.110, 1798.115, and 1798.125, a business shall, in a form that is reasonably accessible to consumers:

(1) (A) Make available to consumers two or more designated methods for submitting requests for information required to be disclosed pursuant to Sections 1798.110 and 1798.115, or requests for deletion or correction pursuant to Sections 1798.105 and 1798.106, respectively, including, at a minimum, a toll-free telephone number. A business that operates exclusively online and has a direct relationship with a consumer from whom it collects personal information shall only be required to provide an email address for submitting requests for information required to be disclosed pursuant to Sections 1798.110 and 1798.115, or for requests for deletion or correction pursuant to Sections 1798.105 and 1798.106, respectively.

(B) If the business maintains an internet website, make the internet website available to consumers to submit requests for information required to be disclosed pursuant to Sections 1798.110 and 1798.115, or requests for deletion or correction pursuant to Sections 1798.105 and 1798.106, respectively.

(2) (A) Disclose and deliver the required information to a consumer free of charge, correct inaccurate personal information, or delete a consumer’s personal information, based on the consumer’s request, within 45 days of receiving a verifiable consumer request from the consumer. The business shall promptly take steps to determine whether the request is a verifiable consumer request, but this shall not extend the business’ duty to disclose and deliver the information, to correct inaccurate personal information, or to delete personal information within 45 days of receipt of the consumer’s request. The time period to provide the required information, to correct inaccurate personal information, or to delete personal information may be extended once by an additional 45 days when reasonably necessary, provided the consumer is provided notice of the extension within the first 45-day period. The disclosure of the required information shall be made in writing and delivered through the consumer’s account with the business, if the consumer maintains an account with the business, or by mail or electronically at the consumer’s option if the consumer does not maintain an account with the business, in a readily useable format that allows the consumer to transmit this information from one entity to another entity without hindrance. The business may require authentication of the consumer that is reasonable in light of the nature of the personal information requested, but shall not require the consumer to create an account with the business in order to make a verifiable consumer request provided that if the consumer, has an account with the business, the business may require the consumer to use that account to submit a verifiable consumer request.

(B) The disclosure of the required information shall cover the 12-month period preceding the business’ receipt of the verifiable consumer request provided that, upon the adoption of a regulation pursuant to paragraph (8) of subdivision (a) of Section 1798.185, a consumer may request that the business disclose the required information beyond the 12-month period, and the business shall be required to provide that information unless doing so proves impossible or would involve a disproportionate effort. A consumer’s right to request required information beyond the 12-month period, and a business’ obligation to provide that information, shall only apply to personal information collected on or after January 1, 2022. Nothing in this subparagraph shall require a business to keep personal information for any length of time.

(3) (A) A business that receives a verifiable consumer request pursuant to Section 1798.110 or 1798.115 shall disclose any personal information it has collected about a consumer, directly or indirectly, including through or by a service provider or contractor, to the consumer. A service provider or contractor shall not be required to comply with a verifiable consumer request received directly from a consumer or a consumer’s authorized agent, pursuant to Section 1798.110 or 1798.115, to the extent that the service provider or contractor has collected personal information about the consumer in its role as a service provider or contractor. A service provider or contractor shall provide assistance to a business with which it has a contractual relationship with respect to the business’ response to a verifiable consumer request, including, but not limited to, by providing to the business the consumer’s personal information in the service provider or contractor’s possession, which the service provider or contractor obtained as a result of providing services to the business, and by correcting inaccurate information or by enabling the business to do the same. A service provider or contractor that collects personal information pursuant to a written contract with a business shall be required to assist the business through appropriate technical and organizational measures in complying with the requirements of subdivisions (d) to (f), inclusive, of Section 1798.100, taking into account the nature of the processing.

(B) For purposes of subdivision (b) of Section 1798.110:

(i) To identify the consumer, associate the information provided by the consumer in the verifiable consumer request to any personal information previously collected by the business about the consumer.

(ii) Identify by category or categories the personal information collected about the consumer for the applicable period of time by reference to the enumerated category or categories in subdivision (c) that most closely describes the personal information collected; the categories of sources from which the consumer’s personal information was collected; the business or commercial purpose for collecting, selling, or sharing the consumer’s personal information; and the categories of third parties to whom the business discloses the consumer’s personal information.

(iii) Provide the specific pieces of personal information obtained from the consumer in a format that is easily understandable to the average consumer, and to the extent technically feasible, in a structured, commonly used, machine-readable format that may also be transmitted to another entity at the consumer’s request without hindrance. “Specific pieces of information” do not include data generated to help ensure security and integrity or as prescribed by regulation. Personal information is not considered to have been disclosed by a business when a consumer instructs a business to transfer the consumer’s personal information from one business to another in the context of switching services.

(4) For purposes of subdivision (b) of Section 1798.115:

(A) Identify the consumer and associate the information provided by the consumer in the verifiable consumer request to any personal information previously collected by the business about the consumer.

(B) Identify by category or categories the personal information of the consumer that the business sold or shared during the applicable period of time by reference to the enumerated category in subdivision (c) that most closely describes the personal information, and provide the categories of third parties to whom the consumer’s personal information was sold or shared during the applicable period of time by reference to the enumerated category or categories in subdivision (c) that most closely describes the personal information sold or shared. The business shall disclose the information in a list that is separate from a list generated for the purposes of subparagraph (C).

(C) Identify by category or categories the personal information of the consumer that the business disclosed for a business purpose during the applicable period of time by reference to the enumerated category or categories in subdivision (c) that most closely describes the personal information, and provide the categories of persons to whom the consumer’s personal information was disclosed for a business purpose during the applicable period of time by reference to the enumerated category or categories in subdivision (c) that most closely describes the personal information disclosed. The business shall disclose the information in a list that is separate from a list generated for the purposes of subparagraph (B).

(5) Disclose the following information in its online privacy policy or policies if the business has an online privacy policy or policies and in any California-specific description of consumers’ privacy rights, or if the business does not maintain those policies, on its internet website, and update that information at least once every 12 months:

(A) A description of a consumer’s rights pursuant to Sections 1798.100, 1798.105, 1798.106, 1798.110, 1798.115, and 1798.125 and two or more designated methods for submitting requests, except as provided in subparagraph (A) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a).

(B) For purposes of subdivision (c) of Section 1798.110:

(i) A list of the categories of personal information it has collected about consumers in the preceding 12 months by reference to the enumerated category or categories in subdivision (c) that most closely describe the personal information collected.

(ii) The categories of sources from which consumers’ personal information is collected.

(iii) The business or commercial purpose for collecting, selling, or sharing consumers’ personal information.

(iv) The categories of third parties to whom the business discloses consumers’ personal information.

(C) For purposes of paragraphs (1) and (2) of subdivision (c) of Section 1798.115, two separate lists:

(i) A list of the categories of personal information it has sold or shared about consumers in the preceding 12 months by reference to the enumerated category or categories in subdivision (c) that most closely describe the personal information sold or shared, or if the business has not sold or shared consumers’ personal information in the preceding 12 months, the business shall prominently disclose that fact in its privacy policy.

(ii) A list of the categories of personal information it has disclosed about consumers for a business purpose in the preceding 12 months by reference to the enumerated category in subdivision (c) that most closely describes the personal information disclosed, or if the business has not disclosed consumers’ personal information for a business purpose in the preceding 12 months, the business shall disclose that fact.

(6) Ensure that all individuals responsible for handling consumer inquiries about the business’ privacy practices or the business’ compliance with this title are informed of all requirements in Sections 1798.100, 1798.105, 1798.106, 1798.110, 1798.115, 1798.125, and this section, and how to direct consumers to exercise their rights under those sections.

(7) Use any personal information collected from the consumer in connection with the business’ verification of the consumer’s request solely for the purposes of verification and shall not further disclose the personal information, retain it longer than necessary for purposes of verification, or use it for unrelated purposes.

(b) A business is not obligated to provide the information required by Sections 1798.110 and 1798.115 to the same consumer more than twice in a 12-month period.

(c) The categories of personal information required to be disclosed pursuant to Sections 1798.100, 1798.110, and 1798.115 shall follow the definitions of personal information and sensitive personal information in Section 1798.140 by describing the categories of personal information using the specific terms set forth in subparagraphs (A) to (K), inclusive, of paragraph (1) of subdivision (v) of Section 1798.140 and by describing the categories of sensitive personal information using the specific terms set forth in subparagraphs (A) to (F), inclusive, of paragraph (1), and subparagraphs (A) to (C), inclusive, of paragraph (2), of subdivision (ae) of Section 1798.140.

1798.140.

Definitions

For purposes of this title:

(a) “Advertising and marketing” means a communication by a business or a person acting on the business’ behalf in any medium intended to induce a consumer to obtain goods, services, or employment.

(b) “Aggregate consumer information” means information that relates to a group or category of consumers, from which individual consumer identities have been removed, that is not linked or reasonably linkable to any consumer or household, including via a device. “Aggregate consumer information” does not mean one or more individual consumer records that have been deidentified.

(c) “Biometric information” means an individual’s physiological, biological, or behavioral characteristics, including information pertaining to an individual’s deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA), that is used or is intended to be used singly or in combination with each other or with other identifying data, to establish individual identity. Biometric information includes, but is not limited to, imagery of the iris, retina, fingerprint, face, hand, palm, vein patterns, and voice recordings, from which an identifier template, such as a faceprint, a minutiae template, or a voiceprint, can be extracted, and keystroke patterns or rhythms, gait patterns or rhythms, and sleep, health, or exercise data that contain identifying information.

(d) “Business” means:

(1) A sole proprietorship, partnership, limited liability company, corporation, association, or other legal entity that is organized or operated for the profit or financial benefit of its shareholders or other owners, that collects consumers’ personal information, or on the behalf of which such information is collected and that alone, or jointly with others, determines the purposes and means of the processing of consumers’ personal information, that does business in the State of California, and that satisfies one or more of the following thresholds:

(A) As of January 1 of the calendar year, had annual gross revenues in excess of twenty-five million dollars ($25,000,000) in the preceding calendar year, as adjusted pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 1798.199.95.

(B) Alone or in combination, annually buys, sells, or shares the personal information of 100,000 or more consumers or households.

(C) Derives 50 percent or more of its annual revenues from selling or sharing consumers’ personal information.

(2) Any entity that controls or is controlled by a business, as defined in paragraph (1), and that shares common branding with the business and with whom the business shares consumers’ personal information. “Control” or “controlled” means ownership of, or the power to vote, more than 50 percent of the outstanding shares of any class of voting security of a business; control in any manner over the election of a majority of the directors, or of individuals exercising similar functions; or the power to exercise a controlling influence over the management of a company. “Common branding” means a shared name, servicemark, or trademark that the average consumer would understand that two or more entities are commonly owned.

(3) A joint venture or partnership composed of businesses in which each business has at least a 40 percent interest. For purposes of this title, the joint venture or partnership and each business that composes the joint venture or partnership shall separately be considered a single business, except that personal information in the possession of each business and disclosed to the joint venture or partnership shall not be shared with the other business.

(4) A person that does business in California, that is not covered by paragraph (1), (2), or (3), and that voluntarily certifies to the California Privacy Protection Agency that it is in compliance with, and agrees to be bound by, this title.

(e) “Business purpose” means the use of personal information for the business’ operational purposes, or other notified purposes, or for the service provider or contractor’s operational purposes, as defined by regulations adopted pursuant to paragraph (10) of subdivision (a) of Section 1798.185, provided that the use of personal information shall be reasonably necessary and proportionate to achieve the purpose for which the personal information was collected or processed or for another purpose that is compatible with the context in which the personal information was collected. Business purposes are:

(1) Auditing related to counting ad impressions to unique visitors, verifying positioning and quality of ad impressions, and auditing compliance with this specification and other standards.

(2) Helping to ensure security and integrity to the extent the use of the consumer’s personal information is reasonably necessary and proportionate for these purposes.

(3) Debugging to identify and repair errors that impair existing intended functionality.

(4) Short-term, transient use, including, but not limited to, nonpersonalized advertising shown as part of a consumer’s current interaction with the business, provided that the consumer’s personal information is not disclosed to another third party and is not used to build a profile about the consumer or otherwise alter the consumer’s experience outside the current interaction with the business.

(5) Performing services on behalf of the business, including maintaining or servicing accounts, providing customer service, processing or fulfilling orders and transactions, verifying customer information, processing payments, providing financing, providing analytic services, providing storage, or providing similar services on behalf of the business.

(6) Providing advertising and marketing services, except for cross-context behavioral advertising, to the consumer provided that, for the purpose of advertising and marketing, a service provider or contractor shall not combine the personal information of opted-out consumers that the service provider or contractor receives from, or on behalf of, the business with personal information that the service provider or contractor receives from, or on behalf of, another person or persons or collects from its own interaction with consumers.

(7) Undertaking internal research for technological development and demonstration.

(8) Undertaking activities to verify or maintain the quality or safety of a service or device that is owned, manufactured, manufactured for, or controlled by the business, and to improve, upgrade, or enhance the service or device that is owned, manufactured, manufactured for, or controlled by the business.

(f) “Collects,” “collected,” or “collection” means buying, renting, gathering, obtaining, receiving, or accessing any personal information pertaining to a consumer by any means. This includes receiving information from the consumer, either actively or passively, or by observing the consumer’s behavior.

(g) “Commercial purposes” means to advance a person’s commercial or economic interests, such as by inducing another person to buy, rent, lease, join, subscribe to, provide, or exchange products, goods, property, information, or services, or enabling or effecting, directly or indirectly, a commercial transaction.

(h) “Consent” means any freely given, specific, informed, and unambiguous indication of the consumer’s wishes by which the consumer, or the consumer’s legal guardian, a person who has power of attorney, or a person acting as a conservator for the consumer, including by a statement or by a clear affirmative action, signifies agreement to the processing of personal information relating to the consumer for a narrowly defined particular purpose. Acceptance of a general or broad terms of use, or similar document, that contains descriptions of personal information processing along with other, unrelated information, does not constitute consent. Hovering over, muting, pausing, or closing a given piece of content does not constitute consent. Likewise, agreement obtained through use of dark patterns does not constitute consent.

(i) “Consumer” means a natural person who is a California resident, as defined in Section 17014 of Title 18 of the California Code of Regulations, as that section read on September 1, 2017, however identified, including by any unique identifier.

(j) (1) “Contractor” means a person to whom the business makes available a consumer’s personal information for a business purpose, pursuant to a written contract with the business, provided that the contract:

(A) Prohibits the contractor from:

(i) Selling or sharing the personal information.

(ii) Retaining, using, or disclosing the personal information for any purpose other than for the business purposes specified in the contract, including retaining, using, or disclosing the personal information for a commercial purpose other than the business purposes specified in the contract, or as otherwise permitted by this title.

(iii) Retaining, using, or disclosing the information outside of the direct business relationship between the contractor and the business.

(iv) Combining the personal information that the contractor receives pursuant to a written contract with the business with personal information that it receives from or on behalf of another person or persons, or collects from its own interaction with the consumer, provided that the contractor may combine personal information to perform any business purpose as defined in regulations adopted pursuant to paragraph (9) of subdivision (a) of Section 1798.185, except as provided for in paragraph (6) of subdivision (e) and in regulations adopted by the California Privacy Protection Agency.

(B) Includes a certification made by the contractor that the contractor understands the restrictions in subparagraph (A) and will comply with them.

(C) Permits, subject to agreement with the contractor, the business to monitor the contractor’s compliance with the contract through measures, including, but not limited to, ongoing manual reviews and automated scans and regular assessments, audits, or other technical and operational testing at least once every 12 months.

(2) If a contractor engages any other person to assist it in processing personal information for a business purpose on behalf of the business, or if any other person engaged by the contractor engages another person to assist in processing personal information for that business purpose, it shall notify the business of that engagement, and the engagement shall be pursuant to a written contract binding the other person to observe all the requirements set forth in paragraph (1).

(k) “Cross-context behavioral advertising” means the targeting of advertising to a consumer based on the consumer’s personal information obtained from the consumer’s activity across businesses, distinctly branded internet websites, applications, or services, other than the business, distinctly branded internet website, application, or service with which the consumer intentionally interacts.

(l) “Dark pattern” means a user interface designed or manipulated with the substantial effect of subverting or impairing user autonomy, decisionmaking, or choice, as further defined by regulation.

(m) “Deidentified” means information that cannot reasonably be used to infer information about, or otherwise be linked to, a particular consumer provided that the business that possesses the information:

(1) Takes reasonable measures to ensure that the information cannot be associated with a consumer or household.

(2) Publicly commits to maintain and use the information in deidentified form and not to attempt to reidentify the information, except that the business may attempt to reidentify the information solely for the purpose of determining whether its deidentification processes satisfy the requirements of this subdivision.

(3) Contractually obligates any recipients of the information to comply with all provisions of this subdivision.

(n) “Designated methods for submitting requests” means a mailing address, email address, internet web page, internet web portal, toll-free telephone number, or other applicable contact information, whereby consumers may submit a request or direction under this title, and any new, consumer-friendly means of contacting a business, as approved by the Attorney General pursuant to Section 1798.185.

(o) “Device” means any physical object that is capable of connecting to the internet, directly or indirectly, or to another device.

(p) “Homepage” means the introductory page of an internet website and any internet web page where personal information is collected. In the case of an online service, such as a mobile application, homepage means the application’s platform page or download page, a link within the application, such as from the application configuration, “About,” “Information,’’ or settings page, and any other location that allows consumers to review the notices required by this title, including, but not limited to, before downloading the application.

(q) “Household” means a group, however identified, of consumers who cohabitate with one another at the same residential address and share use of common devices or services.

(r) “Infer” or “inference” means the derivation of information, data, assumptions, or conclusions from facts, evidence, or another source of information or data.

(s) “Intentionally interacts” means when the consumer intends to interact with a person, or disclose personal information to a person, via one or more deliberate interactions, including visiting the person’s internet website or purchasing a good or service from the person. Hovering over, muting, pausing, or closing a given piece of content does not constitute a consumer’s intent to interact with a person.

(t) “Nonpersonalized advertising” means advertising and marketing that is based solely on a consumer’s personal information derived from the consumer’s current interaction with the business with the exception of the consumer’s precise geolocation.

(u) “Person” means an individual, proprietorship, firm, partnership, joint venture, syndicate, business trust, company, corporation, limited liability company, association, committee, and any other organization or group of persons acting in concert.

(v) (1) “Personal information” means information that identifies, relates to, describes, is reasonably capable of being associated with, or could reasonably be linked, directly or indirectly, with a particular consumer or household. Personal information includes, but is not limited to, the following if it identifies, relates to, describes, is reasonably capable of being associated with, or could be reasonably linked, directly or indirectly, with a particular consumer or household:

(A) Identifiers such as a real name, alias, postal address, unique personal identifier, online identifier, Internet Protocol address, email address, account name, social security number, driver’s license number, passport number, or other similar identifiers.

(B) Any personal information described in subdivision (e) of Section 1798.80.

(C) Characteristics of protected classifications under California or federal law.

(D) Commercial information, including records of personal property, products or services purchased, obtained, or considered, or other purchasing or consuming histories or tendencies.

(E) Biometric information.

(F) Internet or other electronic network activity information, including, but not limited to, browsing history, search history, and information regarding a consumer’s interaction with an internet website application, or advertisement.

(G) Geolocation data.

(H) Audio, electronic, visual, thermal, olfactory, or similar information.

(I) Professional or employment-related information.

(J) Education information, defined as information that is not publicly available personally identifiable information as defined in the Family Educational Rights and Privacy Act (20 U.S.C. Sec. 1232g; 34 C.F.R. Part 99).

(K) Inferences drawn from any of the information identified in this subdivision to create a profile about a consumer reflecting the consumer’s preferences, characteristics, psychological trends, predispositions, behavior, attitudes, intelligence, abilities, and aptitudes.

(L) Sensitive personal information.

(2) (A) “Personal information” does not include publicly available information or lawfully obtained, truthful information that is a matter of public concern.

(B) (i) For purposes of this paragraph, “publicly available” means any of the following:

(I) Information that is lawfully made available from federal, state, or local government records.

(II) Information that a business has a reasonable basis to believe is lawfully made available to the general public by the consumer or from widely distributed media.

(III) Information made available by a person to whom the consumer has disclosed the information if the consumer has not restricted the information to a specific audience.

(ii) “Publicly available” does not mean biometric information collected by a business about a consumer without the consumer’s knowledge.

(3) “Personal information” does not include consumer information that is deidentified or aggregate consumer information.

(4) “Personal information” can exist in various formats, including, but not limited to, all of the following:

(A) Physical formats, including paper documents, printed images, vinyl records, or video tapes.

(B) Digital formats, including text, image, audio, or video files.

(C) Abstract digital formats, including compressed or encrypted files, metadata, or artificial intelligence systems that are capable of outputting personal information.

(w) “Precise geolocation” means any data that is derived from a device and that is used or intended to be used to locate a consumer within a geographic area that is equal to or less than the area of a circle with a radius of 1,850 feet, except as prescribed by regulations.

(x) “Probabilistic identifier” means the identification of a consumer or a consumer’s device to a degree of certainty of more probable than not based on any categories of personal information included in, or similar to, the categories enumerated in the definition of personal information.

(y) “Processing” means any operation or set of operations that are performed on personal information or on sets of personal information, whether or not by automated means.

(z) “Profiling” means any form of automated processing of personal information, as further defined by regulations pursuant to paragraph (15) of subdivision (a) of Section 1798.185, to evaluate certain personal aspects relating to a natural person and in particular to analyze or predict aspects concerning that natural person’s performance at work, economic situation, health, personal preferences, interests, reliability, behavior, location, or movements.

(aa) “Pseudonymize” or “pseudonymization” means the processing of personal information in a manner that renders the personal information no longer attributable to a specific consumer without the use of additional information, provided that the additional information is kept separately and is subject to technical and organizational measures to ensure that the personal information is not attributed to an identified or identifiable consumer.

(ab) “Research” means scientific analysis, systematic study, and observation, including basic research or applied research that is designed to develop or contribute to public or scientific knowledge and that adheres or otherwise conforms to all other applicable ethics and privacy laws, including, but not limited to, studies conducted in the public interest in the area of public health. Research with personal information that may have been collected from a consumer in the course of the consumer’s interactions with a business’ service or device for other purposes shall be:

(1) Compatible with the business purpose for which the personal information was collected.

(2) Subsequently pseudonymized and deidentified, or deidentified and in the aggregate, such that the information cannot reasonably identify, relate to, describe, be capable of being associated with, or be linked, directly or indirectly, to a particular consumer, by a business.

(3) Made subject to technical safeguards that prohibit reidentification of the consumer to whom the information may pertain, other than as needed to support the research.

(4) Subject to business processes that specifically prohibit reidentification of the information, other than as needed to support the research.

(5) Made subject to business processes to prevent inadvertent release of deidentified information.

(6) Protected from any reidentification attempts.

(7) Used solely for research purposes that are compatible with the context in which the personal information was collected.

(8) Subjected by the business conducting the research to additional security controls that limit access to the research data to only those individuals as are necessary to carry out the research purpose.

(ac) “Security and integrity” means the ability of:

(1) Networks or information systems to detect security incidents that compromise the availability, authenticity, integrity, and confidentiality of stored or transmitted personal information.

(2) Businesses to detect security incidents, resist malicious, deceptive, fraudulent, or illegal actions and to help prosecute those responsible for those actions.

(3) Businesses to ensure the physical safety of natural persons.

(ad) (1) “Sell,” “selling,” “sale,” or “sold,’’ means selling, renting, releasing, disclosing, disseminating, making available, transferring, or otherwise communicating orally, in writing, or by electronic or other means, a consumer’s personal information by the business to a third party for monetary or other valuable consideration.

(2) For purposes of this title, a business does not sell personal information when:

(A) A consumer uses or directs the business to intentionally:

(i) Disclose personal information.

(ii) Interact with one or more third parties.

(B) The business uses or shares an identifier for a consumer who has opted out of the sale of the consumer’s personal information or limited the use of the consumer’s sensitive personal information for the purposes of alerting persons that the consumer has opted out of the sale of the consumer’s personal information or limited the use of the consumer’s sensitive personal information.

(C) The business transfers to a third party the personal information of a consumer as an asset that is part of a merger, acquisition, bankruptcy, or other transaction in which the third party assumes control of all or part of the business, provided that information is used or shared consistently with this title. If a third party materially alters how it uses or shares the personal information of a consumer in a manner that is materially inconsistent with the promises made at the time of collection, it shall provide prior notice of the new or changed practice to the consumer. The notice shall be sufficiently prominent and robust to ensure that existing consumers can easily exercise their choices consistently with this title. This subparagraph does not authorize a business to make material, retroactive privacy policy changes or make other changes in their privacy policy in a manner that would violate the Unfair and Deceptive Practices Act (Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 17200) of Part 2 of Division 7 of the Business and Professions Code).

(ae) “Sensitive personal information” means:

(1) Personal information that reveals:

(A) A consumer’s social security, driver’s license, state identification card, or passport number.

(B) A consumer’s account log-in, financial account, debit card, or credit card number in combination with any required security or access code, password, or credentials allowing access to an account.

(C) A consumer’s precise geolocation.

(D) A consumer’s racial or ethnic origin, citizenship or immigration status, religious or philosophical beliefs, or union membership.

(E) The contents of a consumer’s mail, email, and text messages unless the business is the intended recipient of the communication.

(F) A consumer’s genetic data.

(G) (i) A consumer’s neural data.

(ii) “Neural data” means information that is generated by measuring the activity of a consumer’s central or peripheral nervous system, and that is not inferred from nonneural information.

(2) (A) The processing of biometric information for the purpose of uniquely identifying a consumer.

(B) Personal information collected and analyzed concerning a consumer’s health.

(C) Personal information collected and analyzed concerning a consumer’s sex life or sexual orientation.

(3) Sensitive personal information that is “publicly available” pursuant to paragraph (2) of subdivision (v) shall not be considered sensitive personal information or personal information.

(af) “Service” or “services” means work, labor, and services, including services furnished in connection with the sale or repair of goods.

(ag) (1) “Service provider” means a person that processes personal information on behalf of a business and that receives from or on behalf of the business consumer’s personal information for a business purpose pursuant to a written contract, provided that the contract prohibits the person from:

(A) Selling or sharing the personal information.

(B) Retaining, using, or disclosing the personal information for any purpose other than for the business purposes specified in the contract for the business, including retaining, using, or disclosing the personal information for a commercial purpose other than the business purposes specified in the contract with the business, or as otherwise permitted by this title.

(C) Retaining, using, or disclosing the information outside of the direct business relationship between the service provider and the business.

(D) Combining the personal information that the service provider receives from, or on behalf of, the business with personal information that it receives from, or on behalf of, another person or persons, or collects from its own interaction with the consumer, provided that the service provider may combine personal information to perform any business purpose as defined in regulations adopted pursuant to paragraph (9) of subdivision (a) of Section 1798.185, except as provided for in paragraph (6) of subdivision (e) of this section and in regulations adopted by the California Privacy Protection Agency. The contract may, subject to agreement with the service provider, permit the business to monitor the service provider’s compliance with the contract through measures, including, but not limited to, ongoing manual reviews and automated scans and regular assessments, audits, or other technical and operational testing at least once every 12 months.

(2) If a service provider engages any other person to assist it in processing personal information for a business purpose on behalf of the business, or if any other person engaged by the service provider engages another person to assist in processing personal information for that business purpose, it shall notify the business of that engagement, and the engagement shall be pursuant to a written contract binding the other person to observe all the requirements set forth in paragraph (1).

(ah) (1) “Share,” “shared,” or “sharing” means sharing, renting, releasing, disclosing, disseminating, making available, transferring, or otherwise communicating orally, in writing, or by electronic or other means, a consumer’s personal information by the business to a third party for cross-context behavioral advertising, whether or not for monetary or other valuable consideration, including transactions between a business and a third party for cross-context behavioral advertising for the benefit of a business in which no money is exchanged.

(2) For purposes of this title, a business does not share personal information when:

(A) A consumer uses or directs the business to intentionally disclose personal information or intentionally interact with one or more third parties.

(B) The business uses or shares an identifier for a consumer who has opted out of the sharing of the consumer’s personal information or limited the use of the consumer’s sensitive personal information for the purposes of alerting persons that the consumer has opted out of the sharing of the consumer’s personal information or limited the use of the consumer’s sensitive personal information.

(C) The business transfers to a third party the personal information of a consumer as an asset that is part of a merger, acquisition, bankruptcy, or other transaction in which the third party assumes control of all or part of the business, provided that information is used or shared consistently with this title. If a third party materially alters how it uses or shares the personal information of a consumer in a manner that is materially inconsistent with the promises made at the time of collection, it shall provide prior notice of the new or changed practice to the consumer. The notice shall be sufficiently prominent and robust to ensure that existing consumers can easily exercise their choices consistently with this title. This subparagraph does not authorize a business to make material, retroactive privacy policy changes or make other changes in their privacy policy in a manner that would violate the Unfair and Deceptive Practices Act (Chapter 5 (commencing with Section 17200) of Part 2 of Division 7 of the Business and Professions Code).

(ai) “Third party” means a person who is not any of the following:

(1) The business with whom the consumer intentionally interacts and that collects personal information from the consumer as part of the consumer’s current interaction with the business under this title.

(2) A service provider to the business.

(3) A contractor.

(aj) “Unique identifier” or “unique personal identifier” means a persistent identifier that can be used to recognize a consumer, a family, or a device that is linked to a consumer or family, over time and across different services, including, but not limited to, a device identifier; an Internet Protocol address; cookies, beacons, pixel tags, mobile ad identifiers, or similar technology; customer number, unique pseudonym, or user alias; telephone numbers, or other forms of persistent or probabilistic identifiers that can be used to identify a particular consumer or device that is linked to a consumer or family. For purposes of this subdivision, “family” means a custodial parent or guardian and any children under 18 years of age over which the parent or guardian has custody.

(ak) “Verifiable consumer request” means a request that is made by a consumer, by a consumer on behalf of the consumer’s minor child, by a natural person or a person registered with the Secretary of State, authorized by the consumer to act on the consumer’s behalf, or by a person who has power of attorney or is acting as a conservator for the consumer, and that the business can verify, using commercially reasonable methods, pursuant to regulations adopted by the Attorney General pursuant to paragraph (6) of subdivision (a) of Section 1798.185 to be the consumer about whom the business has collected personal information. A business is not obligated to provide information to the consumer pursuant to Sections 1798.110 and 1798.115, to delete personal information pursuant to Section 1798.105, or to correct inaccurate personal information pursuant to Section 1798.106, if the business cannot verify, pursuant to this subdivision and regulations adopted by the Attorney General pursuant to paragraph (6) of subdivision (a) of Section 1798.185, that the consumer making the request is the consumer about whom the business has collected information or is a person authorized by the consumer to act on such consumer’s behalf.

1798.185.

Regulations

(a) On or before July 1, 2020, the Attorney General shall solicit broad public participation and adopt regulations to further the purposes of this title, including, but not limited to, the following areas:

(1) Updating or adding categories of personal information to those enumerated in subdivision (c) of Section 1798.130 and subdivision (v) of Section 1798.140, and updating or adding categories of sensitive personal information to those enumerated in subdivision (ae) of Section 1798.140 in order to address changes in technology, data collection practices, obstacles to implementation, and privacy concerns.

(2) Updating as needed the definitions of “deidentified” and “unique identifier” to address changes in technology, data collection, obstacles to implementation, and privacy concerns, and adding, modifying, or deleting categories to the definition of designated methods for submitting requests to facilitate a consumer’s ability to obtain information from a business pursuant to Section 1798.130. The authority to update the definition of “deidentified” shall not apply to deidentification standards set forth in Section 164.514 of Title 45 of the Code of Federal Regulations, where such information previously was “protected health information” as defined in Section 160.103 of Title 45 of the Code of Federal Regulations.

(3) Establishing any exceptions necessary to comply with state or federal law, including, but not limited to, those relating to trade secrets and intellectual property rights, within one year of passage of this title and as needed thereafter, with the intention that trade secrets should not be disclosed in response to a verifiable consumer request.

(4) Establishing rules and procedures for the following:

(A) To facilitate and govern the submission of a request by a consumer to opt out of the sale or sharing of personal information pursuant to Section 1798.120 and to limit the use of a consumer’s sensitive personal information pursuant to Section 1798.121 to ensure that consumers have the ability to exercise their choices without undue burden and to prevent business from engaging in deceptive or harassing conduct, including in retaliation against consumers for exercising their rights, while allowing businesses to inform consumers of the consequences of their decision to opt out of the sale or sharing of their personal information or to limit the use of their sensitive personal information.

(B) To govern business compliance with a consumer’s opt-out request.

(C) For the development and use of a recognizable and uniform opt-out logo or button by all businesses to promote consumer awareness of the opportunity to opt out of the sale of personal information.

(5) Establishing rules, procedures, and any exceptions necessary to ensure that the notices and information that businesses are required to provide pursuant to this title are provided in a manner that may be easily understood by the average consumer, are accessible to consumers with disabilities, and are available in the language primarily used to interact with the consumer, including establishing rules and guidelines regarding financial incentives within one year of passage of this title and as needed thereafter.

(6) Establishing rules and procedures to further the purposes of Sections 1798.105, 1798.106, 1798.110, and 1798.115 and to facilitate a consumer’s or the consumer’s authorized agent’s ability to delete personal information, correct inaccurate personal information pursuant to Section 1798.106, or obtain information pursuant to Section 1798.130, with the goal of minimizing the administrative burden on consumers, taking into account available technology, security concerns, and the burden on the business, to govern a business’ determination that a request for information received from a consumer is a verifiable consumer request, including treating a request submitted through a password-protected account maintained by the consumer with the business while the consumer is logged into the account as a verifiable consumer request and providing a mechanism for a consumer who does not maintain an account with the business to request information through the business’ authentication of the consumer’s identity, within one year of passage of this title and as needed thereafter.

(7) Establishing how often, and under what circumstances, a consumer may request a correction pursuant to Section 1798.106, including standards governing the following:

(A) How a business responds to a request for correction, including exceptions for requests to which a response is impossible or would involve disproportionate effort, and requests for correction of accurate information.

(B) How concerns regarding the accuracy of the information may be resolved.

(C) The steps a business may take to prevent fraud.

(D) If a business rejects a request to correct personal information collected and analyzed concerning a consumer’s health, the right of a consumer to provide a written addendum to the business with respect to any item or statement regarding any such personal information that the consumer believes to be incomplete or incorrect. The addendum shall be limited to 250 words per alleged incomplete or incorrect item and shall clearly indicate in writing that the consumer requests the addendum to be made a part of the consumer’s record.

(8) Establishing the standard to govern a business’ determination, pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (2) of subdivision (a) of Section 1798.130, that providing information beyond the 12-month period in a response to a verifiable consumer request is impossible or would involve a disproportionate effort.

(9) Issuing regulations further defining and adding to the business purposes, including other notified purposes, for which businesses, service providers, and contractors may use consumers’ personal information consistent with consumers’ expectations, and further defining the business purposes for which service providers and contractors may combine consumers’ personal information obtained from different sources, except as provided for in paragraph (6) of subdivision (e) of Section 1798.140.

(10) Issuing regulations identifying those business purposes, including other notified purposes, for which service providers and contractors may use consumers’ personal information received pursuant to a written contract with a business, for the service provider or contractor’s own business purposes, with the goal of maximizing consumer privacy.

(11) Issuing regulations to further define “intentionally interacts,” with the goal of maximizing consumer privacy.

(12) Issuing regulations to further define “precise geolocation,” including if the size defined is not sufficient to protect consumer privacy in sparsely populated areas or when the personal information is used for normal operational purposes, including billing.

(13) Issuing regulations to define the term “specific pieces of information obtained from the consumer” with the goal of maximizing a consumer’s right to access relevant personal information while minimizing the delivery of information to a consumer that would not be useful to the consumer, including system log information and other technical data. For delivery of the most sensitive personal information, the regulations may require a higher standard of authentication provided that the agency shall monitor the impact of the higher standard on the right of consumers to obtain their personal information to ensure that the requirements of verification do not result in the unreasonable denial of verifiable consumer requests.

(14) Issuing regulations requiring businesses whose processing of consumers’ personal information presents significant risk to consumers’ privacy or security, to:

(A) Perform a cybersecurity audit on an annual basis, including defining the scope of the audit and establishing a process to ensure that audits are thorough and independent. The factors to be considered in determining when processing may result in significant risk to the security of personal information shall include the size and complexity of the business and the nature and scope of processing activities.

(B) Submit to the California Privacy Protection Agency on a regular basis a risk assessment with respect to their processing of personal information, including whether the processing involves sensitive personal information, and identifying and weighing the benefits resulting from the processing to the business, the consumer, other stakeholders, and the public, against the potential risks to the rights of the consumer associated with that processing, with the goal of restricting or prohibiting the processing if the risks to privacy of the consumer outweigh the benefits resulting from processing to the consumer, the business, other stakeholders, and the public. Nothing in this section shall require a business to divulge trade secrets.

(15) Issuing regulations governing access and opt-out rights with respect to a business’ use of automated decisionmaking technology, including profiling and requiring a business’ response to access requests to include meaningful information about the logic involved in those decisionmaking processes, as well as a description of the likely outcome of the process with respect to the consumer.

(16) Issuing regulations to further define a “law enforcement agency-approved investigation” for purposes of the exception in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 1798.145.

(17) Issuing regulations to define the scope and process for the exercise of the agency’s audit authority, to establish criteria for selection of persons to audit, and to protect consumers’ personal information from disclosure to an auditor in the absence of a court order, warrant, or subpoena.

(18) (A) Issuing regulations to define the requirements and technical specifications for an opt-out preference signal sent by a platform, technology, or mechanism, to indicate a consumer’s intent to opt out of the sale or sharing of the consumer’s personal information and to limit the use or disclosure of the consumer’s sensitive personal information. The requirements and specifications for the opt-out preference signal should be updated from time to time to reflect the means by which consumers interact with businesses, and should:

(i) Ensure that the manufacturer of a platform or browser or device that sends the opt-out preference signal cannot unfairly disadvantage another business.

(ii) Ensure that the opt-out preference signal is consumer-friendly, clearly described, and easy to use by an average consumer and does not require that the consumer provide additional information beyond what is necessary.

(iii) Clearly represent a consumer’s intent and be free of defaults constraining or presupposing that intent.

(iv) Ensure that the opt-out preference signal does not conflict with other commonly used privacy settings or tools that consumers may employ.

(v) Provide a mechanism for the consumer to selectively consent to a business’ sale of the consumer’s personal information, or the use or disclosure of the consumer’s sensitive personal information, without affecting the consumer’s preferences with respect to other businesses or disabling the opt-out preference signal globally.

(vi) State that in the case of a page or setting view that the consumer accesses to set the opt-out preference signal, the consumer should see up to three choices, including:

(I) Global opt out from sale and sharing of personal information, including a direction to limit the use of sensitive personal information.

(II) Choice to “Limit the Use of My Sensitive Personal Information.”

(III) Choice titled “Do Not Sell/Do Not Share My Personal Information for Cross-Context Behavioral Advertising.”

(B) Issuing regulations to establish technical specifications for an opt-out preference signal that allows the consumer, or the consumer’s parent or guardian, to specify that the consumer is less than 13 years of age or at least 13 years of age and less than 16 years of age.

(C) Issuing regulations, with the goal of strengthening consumer privacy while considering the legitimate operational interests of businesses, to govern the use or disclosure of a consumer’s sensitive personal information, notwithstanding the consumer’s direction to limit the use or disclosure of the consumer’s sensitive personal information, including:

(i) Determining any additional purposes for which a business may use or disclose a consumer’s sensitive personal information.

(ii) Determining the scope of activities permitted under paragraph (8) of subdivision (e) of Section 1798.140, as authorized by subdivision (a) of Section 1798.121, to ensure that the activities do not involve health-related research.

(iii) Ensuring the functionality of the business’ operations.

(iv) Ensuring that the exemption in subdivision (d) of Section 1798.121 for sensitive personal information applies to information that is collected or processed incidentally, or without the purpose of inferring characteristics about a consumer, while ensuring that businesses do not use the exemption for the purpose of evading consumers’ rights to limit the use and disclosure of their sensitive personal information under Section 1798.121.

(19) Issuing regulations to govern how a business that has elected to comply with subdivision (b) of Section 1798.135 responds to the opt-out preference signal and provides consumers with the opportunity subsequently to consent to the sale or sharing of their personal information or the use and disclosure of their sensitive personal information for purposes in addition to those authorized by subdivision (a) of Section 1798.121. The regulations should:

(A) Strive to promote competition and consumer choice and be technology neutral.

(B) Ensure that the business does not respond to an opt-out preference signal by:

(i) Intentionally degrading the functionality of the consumer experience.

(ii) Charging the consumer a fee in response to the consumer’s opt-out preferences.

(iii) Making any products or services not function properly or fully for the consumer, as compared to consumers who do not use the opt-out preference signal.

(iv) Attempting to coerce the consumer to opt in to the sale or sharing of the consumer’s personal information, or the use or disclosure of the consumer’s sensitive personal information, by stating or implying that the use of the opt-out preference signal will adversely affect the consumer as compared to consumers who do not use the opt-out preference signal, including stating or implying that the consumer will not be able to use the business’ products or services or that those products or services may not function properly or fully.

(v) Displaying any notification or popup in response to the consumer’s opt-out preference signal.

(C) Ensure that any link to a web page or its supporting content that allows the consumer to consent to opt in:

(i) Is not part of a popup, notice, banner, or other intrusive design that obscures any part of the web page the consumer intended to visit from full view or that interferes with or impedes in any way the consumer’s experience visiting or browsing the web page or internet website the consumer intended to visit.

(ii) Does not require or imply that the consumer must click the link to receive full functionality of any products or services, including the internet website.

(iii) Does not make use of any dark patterns.

(iv) Applies only to the business with which the consumer intends to interact.

(D) Strive to curb coercive or deceptive practices in response to an opt-out preference signal but should not unduly restrict businesses that are trying in good faith to comply with Section 1798.135.

(20) Review existing Insurance Code provisions and regulations relating to consumer privacy, except those relating to insurance rates or pricing, to determine whether any provisions of the Insurance Code provide greater protection to consumers than the provisions of this title. Upon completing its review, the agency shall adopt a regulation that applies only the more protective provisions of this title to insurance companies. For the purpose of clarity, the Insurance Commissioner shall have jurisdiction over insurance rates and pricing.

(21) Harmonizing the regulations governing opt-out mechanisms, notices to consumers, and other operational mechanisms in this title to promote clarity and the functionality of this title for consumers.

(b) The Attorney General may adopt additional regulations as necessary to further the purposes of this title.

(c) The Attorney General shall not bring an enforcement action under this title until six months after the publication of the final regulations issued pursuant to this section or July 1, 2020, whichever is sooner.

(d) Notwithstanding subdivision (a), the timeline for adopting final regulations required by the act adding this subdivision shall be July 1, 2022. Beginning the later of July 1, 2021, or six months after the agency provides notice to the Attorney General that it is prepared to begin rulemaking under this title, the authority assigned to the Attorney General to adopt regulations under this section shall be exercised by the California Privacy Protection Agency. Notwithstanding any other law, civil and administrative enforcement of the provisions of law added or amended by this act shall not commence until July 1, 2023, and shall only apply to violations occurring on or after that date. Enforcement of provisions of law contained in the California Consumer Privacy Act of 2018 amended by this act shall remain in effect and shall be enforceable until the same provisions of this act become enforceable.

1950.6.

(a) Notwithstanding Section 1950.5, when a landlord or their agent receives a request to rent a residential property from an applicant, the landlord or their agent may charge, pursuant to subdivision (c), that applicant an application screening fee to cover the costs of obtaining information about the applicant. The information requested and obtained by the landlord or their agent may include, but is not limited to, personal reference checks and consumer credit reports produced by consumer credit reporting agencies as defined in Section 1785.3. A landlord or their agent may, but is not required to, accept and rely upon a consumer credit report presented by an applicant.

(b) The amount of the application screening fee shall not be greater than the actual out-of-pocket costs of gathering information concerning the applicant, including, but not limited to, the cost of using a tenant screening service or a consumer credit reporting service, and the reasonable value of time spent by the landlord or their agent in obtaining information on the applicant. In no case shall the amount of the application screening fee charged by the landlord or their agent be greater than thirty dollars ($30) per applicant. The thirty dollar ($30) application screening fee may be adjusted annually by the landlord or their agent commensurate with an increase in the Consumer Price Index, beginning on January 1, 1998.

(c) (1) A landlord or their agent shall not charge an applicant an application screening fee when they know or should have known that no rental unit is available at that time or will be available within a reasonable period of time.

(2) A landlord or their agent may charge an applicant an application screening fee only if the landlord or their agent, at the time the application screening fee is collected, offers any of the following:

(A) An application screening process that complies with all of the following:

(i) Completed applications are considered, as provided for in the landlord’s established screening criteria, in the order in which the completed applications were received. The landlord’s screening criteria shall be provided to the applicant in writing together with the application form.

(ii) The first applicant who meets the landlord’s established screening criteria is approved for tenancy.

(iii) Applicants are not charged an application screening fee unless or until their application is actually considered.

(iv) Clause (iii) shall not be considered violated if a landlord or their agent inadvertently collects an application screening fee from an applicant as the result of multiple concurrent application submissions, provided that the landlord or their agent issues a refund of the application screening fee within seven days to any applicant whose application is not considered. The landlord may offer, as an alternative to refunding the screening fee, the option, at the applicant’s discretion, for the screening fee paid by the applicant to be applied to an application for another rental unit offered by the landlord. A landlord or their agent shall not be required to refund an application screening fee to an applicant whose application is denied, after consideration, because the applicant does not meet the landlord’s established screening criteria.

(B) An application screening process in which the landlord or their agent returns the entire screening fee to any applicant who is not selected for tenancy, regardless of the reason, within 7 days of selecting an applicant for tenancy or 30 days of when the application was submitted, whichever occurs first.

(d) The landlord or their agent shall provide, personally, or by mail, the applicant with a receipt for the fee paid by the applicant, which receipt shall itemize the out-of-pocket expenses and time spent by the landlord or their agent to obtain and process the information about the applicant. The landlord or their agent and the applicant may agree to have the landlord provide a copy of the receipt for the fee paid by the applicant to an email account provided by the applicant.

(e) If the landlord or their agent does not perform a personal reference check or does not obtain a consumer credit report, the landlord or their agent shall return any amount of the screening fee that is not used for the purposes authorized by this section to the applicant.

(f) If an application screening fee has been paid by the applicant, the landlord or their agent shall provide a copy of the consumer credit report to the applicant who is the subject of that report by personal delivery, mail, or email within seven days of the landlord or their agent receiving the report.

(g) Nothing in this section prevents a landlord from accepting a reusable screening report pursuant to Section 1950.1.

(h) As used in this section, “landlord” means an owner of residential rental property.

(i) As used in this section, “application screening fee” means any nonrefundable payment of money charged by a landlord or their agent to an applicant, the purpose of which is to purchase a consumer credit report and to validate, review, or otherwise process an application for the rent or lease of residential rental property.

(j) As used in this section, “applicant” means any entity or individual who makes a request to a landlord or their agent to rent a residential housing unit, or an entity or individual who agrees to act as a guarantor or cosignor on a rental agreement.

(k) The application screening fee shall not be considered an “advance fee” as that term is used in Section 10026 of the Business and Professions Code, and shall not be considered “security” as that term is used in Section 1950.5.

(l) This section is not intended to preempt any provisions or regulations that govern the collection of deposits and fees under federal or state housing assistance programs.

1954.09.

(a) Notwithstanding paragraph (1) of subdivision (b) of Section 1954.091, shelter program participants shall not have their continued occupancy in a motel, hotel, or shelter program constitute a new tenancy and shall not be considered persons who hire pursuant to Section 1940 for the purposes of Section 1161 of the Code of Civil Procedure, if the shelter program meets all of the following requirements:

(1) The shelter program adheres to the core components of Housing First, pursuant to subdivision (b) of Section 8255 of the Welfare and Institutions Code.

(2) The shelter program establishes, adopts, and clearly documents rules governing how and for what reasons a shelter program participant’s enrollment may be terminated and the shelter program operator discloses the termination policy to program participants in writing, in plain language, at the commencement of their occupancy.

(A) Permissible reasons for termination shall include sexual assault, verbally or physically threatening behaviors that rise to the level of a “direct threat” to persons or property as defined in paragraph (3) of subdivision (b) of Section 12179 of Title 2 of the California Code of Regulations, physical violence to staff, hotel guests, or other program participants, direct observation of participant engaging in illegal activity onsite, or time limits established by the shelter program.

(B) Terminations for reasons not stated in subparagraph (A) and any operational policies negotiated prior to the commencement of the shelter program shall be approved by the shelter program administrator and shared with their shelter program participants in a clearly labeled document.

(C) The shelter program administrator shall endeavor to ensure terminations are performed by the shelter program operator in a trauma-informed manner utilizing a harm-reduction approach, and shall ensure that the termination policies and procedures of the hotel, motel, and shelter program, including the required grievance procedure, comply with all applicable disability laws, including requirements for reasonable accommodation.

(D) The shelter program operator is exempt from providing a 30-day notice pursuant to subparagraph (A) of paragraph (3) if the shelter program participant has self-exited from the program.

(E) If a shelter program participant will exit from the program due to time limits and the participant’s stay is extended for a period of less than 30 days beyond the original termination date, the shelter program administrator or shelter program operator may issue an amended termination notice with an additional period of time equal to the number of days of the program extension.

(3) The shelter program administrator establishes procedures regarding how a shelter program participant will be provided a written termination notice if a termination occurs and the shelter program operator discloses those procedures to shelter program participants in writing at the commencement of their occupancy.

(A) The shelter program operator shall provide the termination notice to the participant at least 30 days prior to the proposed termination or, if the underlying cause for a proposed termination constitutes a “direct threat,” as defined in paragraph (3) of subdivision (b) of Section 12179 of Title 2 of the Code of California Regulations, the shelter program operator may remove the participant from the premises immediately, provided that the operator advises the participant of their right to utilize the grievance process described in paragraph (5).

(B) The termination notice shall contain a clear, plain-language statement of the reason for the termination, shall notify the participant of their right to request a reasonable accommodation if they are a qualified person with a disability, and shall notify the participant of their right to utilize the grievance process described in paragraph (5).

(C) The established procedures developed regarding participant guideline violations shall include an escalation continuum that incorporates documented warnings and documented shelter program operator staff and participant problem solving methods prior to instituting terminations from the shelter program.

(4) The shelter program operator shall provide an exit plan upon termination of a shelter program participant that includes referrals to any available local shelter service for which the participant is eligible and the shelter program operator shall make a good faith, reasonable effort to facilitate an intake for that participant in an available bed or unit.

(A) The shelter program operator shall document good faith, reasonable efforts and shall make that documentation available upon request.

(B) The shelter program administrator, in cases where the grievance process is utilized, shall determine whether the shelter program operator’s efforts constitute a good faith effort to facilitate a participant into an alternative available shelter site or program.

(C) (i) The shelter program administrator shall make good faith efforts to provide reasonable transportation accommodations upon termination of a shelter program participant from a program or upon transfer of a shelter program participant to an alternative available bed or unit.

(ii) In exigent circumstances that necessitate the presence of first responders, police, or fire department and render it infeasible to provide a termination letter at that time or coordinate a postexit plan, the shelter program operator shall create a termination letter that satisfies the above-described requirements and make that documentation available to participants within 24 hours of their request.

(5) The shelter program administrator shall establish a grievance process that complies with due process and the shelter program operator shall disclose the grievance process to occupants in writing, in plain language, at the commencement of their occupancy.

(A) The grievance process shall give shelter program participants a right to due process appeal through the shelter program administrator if the shelter program participant believes they were or are being wrongfully terminated from the program, and shall inform shelter program participants on how to access and initiate the grievance process.

(B) (i) Program participants shall be provided the opportunity to initiate the grievance process 30 days prior to their proposed termination date or at any point thereafter.

(ii) In cases where participants are subject to immediate removal based on circumstances that present a “direct threat,” as defined in paragraph (3) of subdivision (b) of Section 12179 of Title 2 of the California Code of Regulations, participants shall be provided the opportunity to initiate the grievance process at the time of removal or at any point thereafter.

(C) If, following the grievance process, the proposed termination is not carried out, any participant already removed shall be granted the right to resume their participation in the program. If the shelter program operator is unable to place the individual in the original site, the shelter program operator shall facilitate a placement for the individual in an alternative available motel, hotel, or shelter site.

(b) Where a shelter program administrator is also the shelter program operator, the shelter program administrator is responsible for all of the duties described in subdivision (a).

(c) For properties that are being converted from use as a motel or hotel, or from use as a shelter, interim housing, emergency shelter, or other interim facility to a permanent housing site, paragraph (2) shall not apply to occupants of the site from the date that the site receives a certificate of occupancy as a permanent housing site.

2214.

For purposes of this chapter, the following definitions apply:

(a) “Carrier of passengers” means a motor carrier, passenger carrier, or charter-party carrier of passengers that operates a motor vehicle, on a commercial or for-hire basis, and engages in the embarkation and disembarkation of passengers.

(b) “Charter-party carrier of passengers” has the same meaning as used in Section 5360 of the Public Utilities Code.

(c) “Disembarkation” means the physical discharge of passengers from a transportation service provided by a carrier of passengers at a geographic location within California.

(d) “Embarkation” means the physical commencement of a transportation service provided by a carrier of passengers.

(e) “Motor vehicle” has the same meaning as used in Section 5359 of the Public Utilities Code.

2924f.

(a) As used in this section and Sections 2924g and 2924h, “property” means real property or a leasehold estate therein, and “calendar week” means Monday through Saturday, inclusive.

(b) (1) Except as provided in subdivision (c), before any sale of property can be made under the power of sale contained in any deed of trust or mortgage, or any resale resulting from a rescission for a failure of consideration pursuant to subdivision (c) of Section 2924h, notice of the sale thereof shall be given by posting a written notice of the time of sale and of the street address and the specific place at the street address where the sale will be held, and describing the property to be sold, at least 20 days before the date of sale in one public place in the city where the property is to be sold, if the property is to be sold in a city, or, if not, then in one public place in the county seat of the county where the property is to be sold, and publishing a copy once a week for three consecutive calendar weeks.

(2) The first publication to be at least 20 days before the date of sale, in a newspaper of general circulation published in the public notice district in which the property or some part thereof is situated, or in case no newspaper of general circulation is published in the public notice district, in a newspaper of general circulation published in the county in which the property or some part thereof is situated, or in case no newspaper of general circulation is published in the public notice district or county, as the case may be, in a newspaper of general circulation published in the county in this state that is contiguous to the county in which the property or some part thereof is situated and has, by comparison with all similarly contiguous counties, the highest population based upon total county population as determined by the most recent federal decennial census published by the Bureau of the Census. For the purposes of this section, publication of notice in a public notice district is governed by Chapter 1.1 (commencing with Section 6080) of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code.

(3) A copy of the notice of sale shall also be posted in a conspicuous place on the property to be sold at least 20 days before the date of sale, where possible and where not restricted for any reason. If the property is a single-family residence the posting shall be on a door of the residence, but, if not possible or restricted, then the notice shall be posted in a conspicuous place on the property; however, if access is denied because a common entrance to the property is restricted by a guard gate or similar impediment, the property may be posted at that guard gate or similar impediment to any development community.

(4) The notice of sale shall conform to the minimum requirements of Section 6043 of the Government Code and be recorded with the county recorder of the county in which the property or some part thereof is situated at least 20 days prior to the date of sale.

(5) The notice of sale shall contain the name, street address in this state, which may reflect an agent of the trustee, and either a toll-free telephone number or telephone number in this state of the trustee, and the name of the original trustor, and also shall contain the statement required by paragraph (3) of subdivision (c). In addition to any other description of the property, the notice shall describe the property by giving its street address, if any, or other common designation, if any, and a county assessor’s parcel number; but if the property has no street address or other common designation, the notice shall contain a legal description of the property, the name and address of the beneficiary at whose request the sale is to be conducted, and a statement that directions may be obtained pursuant to a written request submitted to the beneficiary within 10 days from the first publication of the notice. Directions shall be deemed reasonably sufficient to locate the property if information as to the location of the property is given by reference to the direction and approximate distance from the nearest crossroads, frontage road, or access road. If a legal description or a county assessor’s parcel number and either a street address or another common designation of the property is given, the validity of the notice and the validity of the sale shall not be affected by the fact that the street address, other common designation, name and address of the beneficiary, or the directions obtained therefrom are erroneous or that the street address, other common designation, name and address of the beneficiary, or directions obtained therefrom are omitted.

(6) The term “newspaper of general circulation,” as used in this section, has the same meaning as defined in Article 1 (commencing with Section 6000) of Chapter 1 of Division 7 of Title 1 of the Government Code.

(7) The notice of sale shall contain a statement of the total amount of the unpaid balance of the obligation secured by the property to be sold and reasonably estimated costs, expenses, advances at the time of the initial publication of the notice of sale, and, if republished pursuant to a cancellation of a cash equivalent pursuant to subdivision (d) of Section 2924h, a reference of that fact; provided, that the trustee shall incur no liability for any good faith error in stating the proper amount, including any amount provided in good faith by or on behalf of the beneficiary. An inaccurate statement of this amount shall not affect the validity of any sale to a bona fide purchaser for value, nor shall the failure to post the notice of sale on a door as provided by this subdivision affect the validity of any sale to a bona fide purchaser for value.

(8) (A) On and after April 1, 2012, if the deed of trust or mortgage containing a power of sale is secured by real property containing from one to four single-family residences, the notice of sale shall contain substantially the following language, in addition to the language required pursuant to paragraphs (1) to (7), inclusive:

NOTICE TO POTENTIAL BIDDERS: If you are considering bidding on this property lien, you should understand that there are risks involved in bidding at a trustee auction. You will be bidding on a lien, not on the property itself. Placing the highest bid at a trustee auction does not automatically entitle you to free and clear ownership of the property. You should also be aware that the lien being auctioned off may be a junior lien. If you are the highest bidder at the auction, you are or may be responsible for paying off all liens senior to the lien being auctioned off, before you can receive clear title to the property. You are encouraged to investigate the existence, priority, and size of outstanding liens that may exist on this property by contacting the county recorder’s office or a title insurance company, either of which may charge you a fee for this information. If you consult either of these resources, you should be aware that the same lender may hold more than one mortgage or deed of trust on the property.

NOTICE TO PROPERTY OWNER: The sale date shown on this notice of sale may be postponed one or more times by the mortgagee, beneficiary, trustee, or a court, pursuant to Section 2924g of the California Civil Code. The law requires that information about trustee sale postponements be made available to you and to the public, as a courtesy to those not present at the sale. If you wish to learn whether your sale date has been postponed, and, if applicable, the rescheduled time and date for the sale of this property, you may call [telephone number for information regarding the trustee’s sale] or visit this internet website [internet website address for information regarding the sale of this property], using the file number assigned to this case [case file number]. Information about postponements that are very short in duration or that occur close in time to the scheduled sale may not immediately be reflected in the telephone information or on the internet website. The best way to verify postponement information is to attend the scheduled sale.

NOTICE TO TENANT: You may have a right to purchase this property after the trustee auction pursuant to Section 2924m of the California Civil Code. If you are an “eligible tenant buyer,” you can purchase the property if you match the last and highest bid placed at the trustee auction. If you are an “eligible bidder,” you may be able to purchase the property if you exceed the last and highest bid placed at the trustee auction. There are three steps to exercising this right of purchase. First, 48 hours after the date of the trustee sale, you can call [telephone number for information regarding the trustee’s sale], or visit this internet website [internet website address for information regarding the sale of this property], using the file number assigned to this case [case file number] to find the date on which the trustee’s sale was held, the amount of the last and highest bid, and the address of the trustee. Second, you must send a written notice of intent to place a bid so that the trustee receives it no more than 15 days after the trustee’s sale. Third, you must submit a bid so that the trustee receives it no more than 45 days after the trustee’s sale. If you think you may qualify as an “eligible tenant buyer” or “eligible bidder,” you should consider contacting an attorney or appropriate real estate professional immediately for advice regarding this potential right to purchase.

(B) A mortgagee, beneficiary, trustee, or authorized agent shall make a good faith effort to provide up-to-date information regarding sale dates and postponements to persons who wish this information. This information shall be made available free of charge. It may be made available via an internet website, a telephone recording that is accessible 24 hours a day, seven days a week, or through any other means that allows 24 hours a day, seven days a week, no-cost access to updated information. A disruption of any of these methods of providing sale date and postponement information to allow for reasonable maintenance or due to a service outage shall not be deemed to be a violation of the good faith standard.

(C) Except as provided in subparagraph (B), nothing in the wording of the notices required by subparagraph (A) is intended to modify or create any substantive rights or obligations for any person providing, or specified in, either of the required notices. Failure to comply with subparagraph (A) or (B) shall not invalidate any sale that would otherwise be valid under this section.

(D) Information provided pursuant to subparagraph (A) does not constitute the public declaration required by subdivision (d) of Section 2924g.

(E) For purposes of a property subject to this paragraph and of satisfying the requirements of Section 2924m, a trustee or an authorized agent shall maintain an internet website and a telephone number to provide information on applicable properties to persons who wish the information. In addition to any other information required by subparagraph (B), a trustee or an authorized agent shall provide information regarding the sale date, amount of the last and highest bid, and the trustee’s address, to be accessible using the file number assigned to the case and listed on the NOTICE TO TENANT required by subparagraph (A). This information shall be made available free of charge and shall be available 24 hours a day, seven days a week.

(9) If the sale of the property is to be a unified sale as provided in subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 9604 of the Commercial Code, the notice of sale shall also contain a description of the personal property or fixtures to be sold. In the case where it is contemplated that all of the personal property or fixtures are to be sold, the description in the notice of the personal property or fixtures shall be sufficient if it is the same as the description of the personal property or fixtures contained in the agreement creating the security interest in or encumbrance on the personal property or fixtures or the filed financing statement relating to the personal property or fixtures. In all other cases, the description in the notice shall be sufficient if it would be a sufficient description of the personal property or fixtures under Section 9108 of the Commercial Code. Inclusion of a reference to or a description of personal property or fixtures in a notice of sale hereunder shall not constitute an election by the secured party to conduct a unified sale pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 9604 of the Commercial Code, shall not obligate the secured party to conduct a unified sale pursuant to subparagraph (B) of paragraph (1) of subdivision (a) of Section 9604 of the Commercial Code, and in no way shall render defective or noncomplying either that notice or a sale pursuant to that notice by reason of the fact that the sale includes none or less than all of the personal property or fixtures referred to or described in the notice. This paragraph shall not otherwise affect the obligations or duties of a secured party under the Commercial Code.

(c) (1) This subdivision applies only to deeds of trust or mortgages which contain a power of sale and which are secured by real property containing a single-family, owner-occupied residence, where the obligation secured by the deed of trust or mortgage is contained in a contract for goods or services subject to the provisions of the Unruh Act (Chapter 1 (commencing with Section 1801) of Title 2 of Part 4 of Division 3).

(2) Except as otherwise expressly set forth in this subdivision, all other provisions of law relating to the exercise of a power of sale shall govern the exercise of a power of sale contained in a deed of trust or mortgage described in paragraph (1).

(3) If any default of the obligation secured by a deed of trust or mortgage described in paragraph (1) has not been cured within 30 days after the recordation of the notice of default, the trustee or mortgagee shall mail to the trustor or mortgagor, at their last known address, a copy of the following statement:

(4) All sales of real property pursuant to a power of sale contained in any deed of trust or mortgage described in paragraph (1) shall be held in the county where the residence is located and shall be made to the person making the highest offer. The trustee may receive offers during the 10-day period immediately prior to the date of sale and if any offer is accepted in writing by both the trustor or mortgagor and the beneficiary or mortgagee prior to the time set for sale, the sale shall be postponed to a date certain and prior to which the property may be conveyed by the trustor to the person making the offer according to its terms. The offer is revocable until accepted. The performance of the offer, following acceptance, according to its terms, by a conveyance of the property to the offeror, shall operate to terminate any further proceeding under the notice of sale and it shall be deemed revoked.

(5) In addition to the trustee fee pursuant to Section 2924c, the trustee or mortgagee pursuant to a deed of trust or mortgage subject to this subdivision shall be entitled to charge an additional fee of fifty dollars ($50).

(6) This subdivision applies only to property on which notices of default were filed on or after the effective date of this subdivision.

(d) With respect to residential real property containing no more than four dwelling units, a separate document containing a summary of the notice of sale information in English and the languages described in Section 1632 shall be attached to the notice of sale provided to the mortgagor or trustor pursuant to Section 2923.3.

(e) (1) With respect to residential real property containing no more than four dwelling units that is subject to a power of sale contained in any deed of trust or mortgage, a sale of the property under the power of sale shall not be conducted until the expiration of an additional 45 days following the scheduled date of sale pursuant to subdivision (a) or (c) of Section 2924g if the trustee receives, at least five business days before the scheduled date of sale, from the mortgagor or trustor, by certified mail with the United States Postal Service or by another overnight mail courier service with tracking information that confirms the recipient’s signature and the date and time of receipt and delivery, a listing agreement with a California licensed real estate broker to be placed in a publicly available marketing platform for the sale of the property at least five business days before the scheduled date of sale. The provisions of this paragraph shall not be used to postpone the scheduled sale date more than once.

(2) If a scheduled date of sale is postponed pursuant to paragraph (1), the trustor’s or mortgagor’s right to reinstate the account shall be extended, calculated pursuant to subdivision (e) of Section 2924c based on the new scheduled date of sale.

(3) If a scheduled date of sale has been postponed pursuant to paragraph (1) and the trustee receives, at least five business days before the scheduled date of sale, from the mortgagor or trustor, by certified mail with the United States Postal Service or by another overnight mail courier service with tracking information that confirms the recipient’s signature and the date and time of receipt and delivery, a copy of a purchase agreement for the sale of the property at least five business days before the scheduled sale, the trustee shall postpone the scheduled date of sale to a date that is at least 45 days after the date on which the purchase agreement was received by the trustee. The provisions of this paragraph shall not be used to postpone the scheduled sale date more than once.

(4) For purposes of this subdivision, “purchase agreement” means a bona fide and fully executed contract for the sale of the property that is subject to a power of sale with a purchase price amount equal to or greater than the amount of the unpaid balance of all obligations of record secured by the property that includes the name of the buyer, the sales price, the agreed closing date, and acceptance by the designated escrow agent.

(f) (1) With respect to residential real property containing no more than four dwelling units that is subject to a power of sale contained in a first lien deed of trust or mortgage, the mortgagee, beneficiary, or authorized agent shall provide to the trustee a fair market value of the property at least 10 days prior to the initially scheduled date of sale, and the trustee shall not sell the property at the initially scheduled date of sale for less than 67 percent of that fair market value of the property. The trustee may rely on the fair market value provided pursuant to this paragraph, and shall not have a duty to verify the source or accuracy of the valuation.

(2) If the property remains unsold after the initial trustee’s sale pursuant to paragraph (1), then the trustee shall postpone the sale for at least seven days, and the property may be sold to the highest bidder.

(3) For purposes of this subdivision, “fair market value of the property” means an estimate of the fair market value of the property made within six months of the initially scheduled date of sale and determined by an opinion of a licensed real estate broker, an appraisal from a licensed appraiser, a value from a commercially utilized automated valuation model, or a value from a computerized property valuation system that is used to derive a real property value.

(4) A failure to comply with the provisions of paragraph (1) shall not affect the validity of a trustee’s sale or a sale to a bona fide purchaser for value.

(5) The provisions of this subdivision shall apply to the initial trustee’s sale for each notice of sale issued pursuant to subdivision (b).

(g) This section shall remain in effect only until January 1, 2031, and as of that date is repealed, unless a later enacted statute that is enacted before January 1, 2031, deletes or extends that date.